I understand that using $R^2$ in time series models may not be the best as $R^2$ is non-decreasing.
I also read this post: What is the problem with using R-squared in time series models? on the problems with $R^2$
However, is there a mathematical way of proving why $R^2$ may not be the most useful in time series data?
$$R^2 = 1 - \frac {\frac {1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^T \hat u_i^2}{\frac {1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^T (Y_t-\bar Y)^2}$$
Using this formula, I tried to find the probability limit of $R^2$ for a stationary AR(1) regression and a random walk.
Is it right to say that in both a stationary AR(1) regression and a random walk, $$\frac {1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^T \hat u_i^2$$ converges to 0, and thus, the probability limit of $R^2$ is equal to 1?
I am not sure if my method is right. Please advice thank you!