Z distribution is symmetric. Chi square distribution is not symmetric. Why?
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9A chi-square random variable can take on values in $[0,\infty]$ only, which sort of makes it very hard for it to have a symmetric distribution, whether symmetric about $0$ or symmetric about some (positive) number $\mu$. – Dilip Sarwate Jan 15 '18 at 17:19
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@Dilip "Sort of hard" reflects our experience with theoretical models rather than any mathematical fact. – whuber Feb 02 '21 at 10:27
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you could derive kurtosis and skewness directly to prove that statement. Also, when number of degrees of freedom is large, Chi square distribution becomes symmetric by CLT. – Gregory Stelmashenko Nov 02 '21 at 11:15
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@GregoryStelmashenko it becomes approximately symmetric. – Sextus Empiricus Nov 02 '21 at 14:21
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@GregoryStelmashenko That seems like the common misconception about the central limit theorem discussed here. – Dave Mar 08 '22 at 10:33
2 Answers
A continuous distribution is symmetric if his density function verifies:
$$ \forall x \in R \quad f(-x) = f(x) $$
The support of the chi-square distribution is $ [0,\infty) $: this distribution can not be symmetric.
We can speak about symmetry about a point, $a \in R$ which is not the origin. In that case, the distribution is symmetric if verifies:
$$ \forall x \in R \quad f(a-x) = f(a+x) $$
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- Although your statement about symmetry is correct, it's not complete, as it is a sufficient but not a necessary condition for symmetry. For example, a Binomial distribution with probability $p=0.5$ is symmetric but does not satisfy your condition. 2. A distribution can be symmetric without being normal, e.g., the Binomial example just given. Unfortunately, this all implies that you haven't really answered the question.
– jbowman Jan 15 '18 at 18:19 -
I gave the condition for a continuous distributions. We're not talking about discrete distributions. – Rafael Marazuela Jan 16 '18 at 08:44
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8A uniform distribution on $(0,a)$ is continuous and symmetric, but it is not the case that $f(-x) = f(x)$. – jbowman Jan 16 '18 at 16:11
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1Thank you. And although your conclusion is perfectly correct, given the elementary nature of the question it might be advisable to explain in more detail how you know the distribution cannot be symmetric. Note, too, that your argument is not fully general: it discusses only distributions with densities $f$ (which is what "$f$" must refer to). The conclusion holds for all distributions, even those without densities. – whuber Jan 16 '18 at 18:44
There is a very simple reason which, although alluded to in comments and answers, deserves to be brought forward. To expose the key underlying concept, I will answer a generalization.
Let $Z$ be any random variable with unbounded support. Then $Z^2$ cannot have a symmetric distribution.
"Unbounded support" means that for any number $N$, $\Pr(|Z|\gt N) \gt 0:$ that is, no matter how large a possible bound $N$ might be, $Z$ still has some chance of exceeding $N$ in size. For brevity, I will refer to such variables as "unbounded."
Proof. Suppose, on the contrary, that $Z^2$ does have a symmetric distribution. This means (by definition) that there is some number $\mu$ for which $Z^2$ and $2\mu - Z^2$ have the same distribution. But then
$$\Pr(Z^2 \gt 2\mu) = \Pr(2\mu - Z^2\gt 2\mu) = \Pr(Z^2\lt 0) = 0$$
shows $Z^2$ must be bounded. This contradiction implies our initial assumption (that $Z^2$ is symmetric) is false, QED.
The idea of this proof is illustrated in the figures appearing at the end of this post.
Here is an easy consequence:
All unbounded symmetric variables are unbounded both positively and negatively.
To prove this, let $X$ be an unbounded symmetric random variable. Because it is symmetric, there is a number $\mu$ for which $2\mu-X$ has the same distribution as $X.$ If $X$ had a lower bound $M$ for which $\Pr(X \lt M) = 0,$ then $2\mu-M$ would be an upper bound of $X$ because by symmetry
$$\Pr(X \gt 2\mu-M) = \Pr(2\mu-X \lt M) = 0.$$
In the same way, any upper bound of $X$ would give a symmetric lower bound. Thus, $X$ has neither an upper nor a lower bound, QED.
Answer to the question:
All chi-squared variables are unbounded because when $X$ has a $\chi^2(\nu)$ distribution, the chance that $X$ exceeds any number $N$ is
$$\Pr(X \gt N) \propto \int_N^\infty t^{\nu/2-1}\,e^{-t/2}\,\mathrm{d}t = \int_N^\infty e^{(\nu/2-1)\log(t)\ -\ t/2}\,\mathrm{d}t \gt 0$$
because on the interval $(\max(N,0), \infty)$ the integrand (an exponential function of finite arguments) is strictly positive. Because (by definition) $X$ is bounded below by $0,$ $X$ cannot have a symmetric distribution, QED.
Interesting followup.
Nevertheless, we know that when $X$ has a $\chi^2(\nu)$ distribution, the limiting distribution of $Z = (X - \nu)/\sqrt{2\nu}$ as $\nu$ grows large is standard Normal, which is symmetric. Thus, for large $\nu,$ $X = \sqrt{2\nu}Z + \nu$ is close to symmetric.
The dotted red line is the density of $2\nu - X.$ Because it is very nearly the same as that of $X,$ we see that $X$ is nearly symmetric. However, it cannot be perfectly symmetric because to the left of $0$ $X$ has no probability even though it has positive probability arbitrarily far to the right. We can see this by plotting the log density:
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