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Z distribution is symmetric. Chi square distribution is not symmetric. Why?

Joy
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    A chi-square random variable can take on values in $[0,\infty]$ only, which sort of makes it very hard for it to have a symmetric distribution, whether symmetric about $0$ or symmetric about some (positive) number $\mu$. – Dilip Sarwate Jan 15 '18 at 17:19
  • @Dilip "Sort of hard" reflects our experience with theoretical models rather than any mathematical fact. – whuber Feb 02 '21 at 10:27
  • you could derive kurtosis and skewness directly to prove that statement. Also, when number of degrees of freedom is large, Chi square distribution becomes symmetric by CLT. – Gregory Stelmashenko Nov 02 '21 at 11:15
  • @GregoryStelmashenko it becomes approximately symmetric. – Sextus Empiricus Nov 02 '21 at 14:21
  • @GregoryStelmashenko That seems like the common misconception about the central limit theorem discussed here. – Dave Mar 08 '22 at 10:33

2 Answers2

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A continuous distribution is symmetric if his density function verifies:

$$ \forall x \in R \quad f(-x) = f(x) $$

The support of the chi-square distribution is $ [0,\infty) $: this distribution can not be symmetric.

We can speak about symmetry about a point, $a \in R$ which is not the origin. In that case, the distribution is symmetric if verifies:

$$ \forall x \in R \quad f(a-x) = f(a+x) $$

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  • Although your statement about symmetry is correct, it's not complete, as it is a sufficient but not a necessary condition for symmetry. For example, a Binomial distribution with probability $p=0.5$ is symmetric but does not satisfy your condition. 2. A distribution can be symmetric without being normal, e.g., the Binomial example just given. Unfortunately, this all implies that you haven't really answered the question.
  • – jbowman Jan 15 '18 at 18:19
  • I gave the condition for a continuous distributions. We're not talking about discrete distributions. – Rafael Marazuela Jan 16 '18 at 08:44
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    A uniform distribution on $(0,a)$ is continuous and symmetric, but it is not the case that $f(-x) = f(x)$. – jbowman Jan 16 '18 at 16:11
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    Thank you. And although your conclusion is perfectly correct, given the elementary nature of the question it might be advisable to explain in more detail how you know the distribution cannot be symmetric. Note, too, that your argument is not fully general: it discusses only distributions with densities $f$ (which is what "$f$" must refer to). The conclusion holds for all distributions, even those without densities. – whuber Jan 16 '18 at 18:44