When I start with the maximal random effects structure for a repeated measures design with three within-subject factors m_1 <- lmer(y ~ a*b*c + (1 + a*b*c|subject), data) and my model doesn't converge, how do I reduce it?
I think a model that converges most of the time should be the following random intercept model
m_interc <- lmer(y ~ a*b*c + (1|subject) + (1|a:subject) + (1|b:subject) + (1|c:subject)
+ (1|a:b:subject) + (1|a:c:subject) + (1|b:c:subject)
+ (1|a:b:c:subject), data)
But I don't really know how to get from m_1 to m_interc. E.g. when the random slope variance for the a * b * c interaction is zero do I follow up with m_2or m_3
m_2 <- lmer(y ~ a*b*c + (1 + a*b*c - a:b:c|subject) + (1|a:b:c:subject), data)
m_3 <- lmer(y ~ a*b*c + (1 + a*b*c - a:b:c|subject), data)
Or, given the random slope variance for factor a is zero, do I substitute the random slope for a with the term (1|a:subject) or just exclude it?
Also, Bates states (slide 91) that if the variance-covariance matrix for the factor by subject slope, e.g. in a model with (0 + a|subject), has the form of compound symmetry it is equivalent to a model with random intercepts for subject (1|subject) and for the factor:subject interaction (1|a:subject). Why is this the case?
(1|a:subject)are not really in the spirit of mixed models. This is approach used in ANOVA and one usually uses such terms to replicate the ANOVA results with lmer. If you don't care about classical ANOVA then you usually want to have your factorsa,b, etc. only on the left side of|. So if(1 + a*b*c|subject)does not converge, try(1 + a*b*c - a:b:c|subject). – amoeba Sep 20 '17 at 08:29(1|a:subject)correspond to what ANOVA does. The main practical difference is discussed by Bates: whenahas lots of levels,(a|subject)is a vastly more complicated model because it estimates the full covariance matrix between levels. – amoeba Sep 21 '17 at 18:44(0 + a|subject)is equivalent to(1|subject) + (1|a:subject)? Or do you know any resources that discuss this issue? – statmerkur Sep 21 '17 at 19:27