A study of daily default rates allows me to conclude that they are distributed as a normal one. Previously, I had to eliminate some of the effects of stationarity.
I have following two questions:
How can it be justified that if the daily default rate is normal, then the annual default rate will also follow a Normal distribution? or this assumption is not possible at all? Eliminating the stationarity effect implies the normal distribution assumption is not right?
Add:My daily default rate for a 3 year sample is normal, regardless of the summer months and weekends. My problem is that I do not know if it is possible to increase the temporality of the variable rate of default and assume that it is normal, because it is another variable.
My problem is that I do not know if it is possible to increase the temporality of the variable rate of default and assume that it is normal, because it is another variable.Thank you !!
– Mark Apr 24 '17 at 17:14