I'm reading "Power-Law Distributions in Empirical Data": https://arxiv.org/pdf/0706.1062.pdf.
The authors make the claim that "In some cases the distributions we wish to compare may be nested, meaning that one family of distributions is a subset of the other. The power law and the power law with exponential cutoff in Table 2.1 provide an example of such nested distributions."
If you were to write just the "kernels" of the pdfs for the corresponding distributions, this seems obvious:
$$ f(x) \propto x^{-\alpha}e^{-\lambda x} \ \ \text{ power law with cutoff}$$
and $$ g(x)\propto x^{-\alpha} \ \ \text{power law} .$$
Sure, sure, if we let $\lambda = 0$, then $f(x)$ seems to equal $g(x)$. But let's look at the full pdfs,
$$ f(x) = \frac{\lambda^{1-\alpha}}{\Gamma(1-\alpha, \lambda x_{min})}x^{-\alpha}e^{-\lambda x} \ \ \text{ power law with cutoff}$$
and $$ g(x)= (\alpha-1)x_{min}^{\alpha -1 }x^{-\alpha} \ \ \text{power law} .$$
where $\alpha > 1$ and $x \ge x_{min} >0$.
Now it's not so obvious. If we plug in $\lambda = 0$, then $f(x) = 0$.
In what sense can we say that these are nested? I am not satisfied with saying "but the normalizer doesn't matter" because, as far as the equivalence of the functions is concerned, it seems to matter a lot.
