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Let $X$ be a random variable with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$. What is the upper-bound on the variance of $Y=\left|X\right|$?

My gut feeling says that $\operatorname{Var}(Y) \leq \operatorname{Var}(X)$ because 'modulus' is a many-to-one function.

Note :- It is easy to see that if $X$ takes only positive values, $\operatorname{Var}(Y) = \operatorname{Var}(X)$

  • http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/5782/variance-of-a-function-of-one-random-variable?rq=1 - generalizes the above question. – Vivek Bagaria Jun 27 '16 at 05:06
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    What do you mean by "the" upper bound? Why would there only be one such bound? Which kind of a bound are you seeking? There's a simple upper bound to be found (and rather easily found), but it's not clear if it's what you seek. How does this problem arise? – Glen_b Jun 27 '16 at 07:21
  • Glen_b: I am seeking a upper-bound in terms of $\mu$, $\sigma$ and other possible quantities. – Vivek Bagaria Jun 27 '16 at 07:38
  • Clearly. That doesn't doesn't really deal with what I was getting at. $1$. Why "the" rather than "a"? What makes it unique? $2$. Why do you need such an upper bound? Where does the problem come from? – Glen_b Jun 27 '16 at 08:00
  • "the"/"a" was due ti my bad grammar. 2) The problem is only from observations with some real data and I don't have any source for this.
  • – Vivek Bagaria Jun 27 '16 at 08:50
  • If you have real data why would you need a bound? You could just calculate the variance. – Glen_b Jun 27 '16 at 09:33
  • There is no shame in asking self-study questions. In any case, if you are motivated by real data and willing to understand your observations, you can still be considered as a self-learner...! – Elvis Jun 27 '16 at 13:45
  • Glen_b - I was just curious if there was a theoretical bound. – Vivek Bagaria Jun 27 '16 at 22:10