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The sample mean is $\bar X = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ and the sample variance is $S^2 = \frac{1}{n-1} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \bar X)^2$

Can someone please explain how the sample mean and sample variance are independent?

Blueberry
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1 Answers1

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The premise of the question is false - they aren't independent, in general.

Here's an example:

enter image description here

Glen_b
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