I was working through Harvard data science course: I came across this question:
Assume you have $M$ polls with sample sizes $n_1,\ldots,n_M$. If the polls are independent, what is the average of the variances of each poll if the true proportion is $p$?

I know the general definition of variance, deviation from the mean square. But in this case how are they defining variance of a single poll as $p(1-p)\over{n}$?