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I'm trying to understand why the asymptotic Variance-Covariance($\text{Avar}(b)$) matrix of OLS estimator is Positive Definite(PD), like it's stated in Hayashi's book on page 113.

We know that $\text{Avar}(b)=(E[\mathbf{x}_i\mathbf{x}_i'])^{-1}E[(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)'](E[\mathbf{x}_i\mathbf{x}_i'])^{-1}$.

I can prove that $\text{Avar}(b)$ is PD if $E[(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)']$ is also PD. My problem is how to prove this last assertion, since we only know that it's non-sigular by assumption, and $\{\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i\}$ is a martingale difference sequence.

1 Answers1

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Applying the Law of Iterated Expectations, $$E[(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)(\mathbf{x}_i\cdot \epsilon_i)'] = E[\epsilon_i^2\mathbf{x}_i\mathbf{x}_i']=E\Big(E[\epsilon_i^2\mid \mathbf{x}_i]\mathbf{x}_i\mathbf{x}_i'\Big) $$ For exposition purposes, assume that the regressors are two, $X_1$ and $X_2$. Set also $E[\epsilon_i^2\mid \mathbf{x}_i] \equiv h$. Then the determinant of the matrix (where we first take the expected value and then we calculate the determinant) is

$$D=E[hX_1^2]\cdot E[hX_2^2] - \left(E[hX_1X_2]\right)^2 \neq 0$$

since it is assumed non-singular. First, it is evident that if the one variable was a linear function of the other, then the above determinant would be zero. So the assumption of non-singularity rules out full linear dependence. This also rules out a correlation coefficient $\rho_x$ equal to unity (keep that).

Now, set $Z_1 =\sqrt{h}X_1, \;\; Z_2 =\sqrt{h}X_2$. (Note that the correlation coefficient $\rho_z$ between $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ cannot be equal to unity too). Then the determinant can be written

$$D= E[Z_1^2]\cdot E[Z_2^2] - \left(E[Z_1Z_2]\right)^2$$

Without loss of generality, assume that the variables have zero mean. Then we have

$$D= {\rm Var}(Z_1)\cdot {\rm Var}(Z_2) - \left({\rm Cov}[Z_1,Z_2]\right)^2$$

$$= {\rm Var}(Z_1)\cdot {\rm Var}(Z_2) - \rho_z^2 {\rm Var}(Z_1)\cdot {\rm Var}(Z_2)$$

$$\Rightarrow (1-\rho_z^2)\cdot {\rm Var}(Z_1)\cdot {\rm Var}(Z_2)$$

For positive definiteness we want all leading principal minors to be greater than zero. Here, the first minor is ${\rm Var}(Z_1)>0$ and the second minor is $D>0$ since $\rho_z <|1|$.

ADDENDUM

Moving to 3 dimensions, under the expected value and the transformation to $Z$ variables, we have a variance-covariance matrix with full rank. Then it is positive semi-definite, so $D_{3\times 3} \geq 0$. But by assumption it is non-singular (so $D_{3\times 3} \neq 0$) therefore it is positive-definite since we are left only with $D_{3\times 3} > 0$.

With all leading principal minors up to three dimensions strictly positive, let's move to four dimensions. We only need to show in addition the $4\times 4$ determinant to be greater than zero. But the matrix is a covariance matrix so $D_{4\times 4} \geq 0$. But this is also the full determinant of the matrix, and since by assumption the matrix is non-singular, we have that $D_{4\times 4} > 0$. Hence, it is positive definite. Move on to five dimensions. Same reasoning. Etc.

I stress again the fact that this result depends critically on the expected value operator, which transforms the matrix into a variance-covariance one. Otherwise, the outer product of a $k\times 1$ column vector of numbers is a singular matrix.

  • Thanks for your answer Alecos. Could you elaborate a bit further? From Hayashi, we only know that $E(\mathbf{x}_i\mathbf{x}_i')$ is non-singular. This is not enough for it to be PD, though... – An old man in the sea. Dec 28 '14 at 09:35
  • I believe it follows from $x_i$ having full rank. – CloseToC Dec 28 '14 at 09:53
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    @CloseToC Beware. We are not talking about the regressor matrix, but for the outer product of the regressor vector of just one observation. In deterministic terms, this outer product is of course always singular, but in expected value terms it may not be, and this is what is assumed. – Alecos Papadopoulos Dec 28 '14 at 14:47
  • Pretty nice answer Alecos. :)

    If I wanted to generalize your answer to more than two regressors, how would I do it?

    – An old man in the sea. Jan 01 '15 at 23:16
  • Start by write out the matrix for three regressors, and apply the criterion "all leading principal minors should be greater than zero". The first two will be identical to the ones given in my answer, so you will have to investigate the $3 \times 3$ "principal minor" which in effect will be the determinant proper. This I believe will give you the clue of how this generalizes. – Alecos Papadopoulos Jan 01 '15 at 23:26
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    Alecos, I don't seem to get how to generalize it... the 3 by 3 determinant doesn't seem to give anything useful. Could you help me? – An old man in the sea. Jan 03 '15 at 10:44
  • Ok, I added the generalization. – Alecos Papadopoulos Jan 03 '15 at 14:41