I am told that wealth follows a Pareto distribution, and that IQ follows a Pearson IV distribution (http://www.abelard.org/burt/burt-ie.asp). Both Pareto and Pearson IV distributions have long tails. Which one is longer?
In plain language: are billionaires further from the average population in terms of wealth than geniuses are in terms of IQ?
And considering that wealth is a cardinal variable and IQ and ordinal one, does this question even make sense?
