Is it possible to have Inversion of Control without the Dependency Inversion Principle? Some sources insist they're the same, others don't. Would like to get a conversation going around the differences.
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1DIP, IOC, and DI are all part of a [hierarchy](https://stackoverflow.com/a/65588618/1371329). – jaco0646 Feb 07 '22 at 16:30
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@jaco0646 thanks, that's helpful – Nick B Feb 07 '22 at 18:22