what is the Difference between <> and != in python

Question

I know:

>>> 1 != 2
True

and:

>>> 1 <> 2
True

but I don't know what the difference between <> and !=

Difference is probably that <> takes more operation and more time to check and thus is less concisely — Moshe Goldberg, Jun 26 '15 at 01:10
@JediPythonClone no, it doesn't *"take more operation"*; do you think that `x <> y` is interpreted as `(x < y) and (x > y)`?! — jonrsharpe, Jun 29 '15 at 13:15
@jonrsharpe perhaps I was mistaken, my apologies, that's why I said probably and left it as a comment, not as an answer — Moshe Goldberg, Jun 29 '15 at 13:23

score 2 · Accepted Answer · answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:10

2

<> is removed from the language in Python3. In Python2, they are the same, but != is preferred.

answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:10

unutbu

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oh yes. this is true. i test it now and see that <> is removed from python 3 and <> is an unknown syntax in python 3. – Mohammad Reza Jun 25 '15 at 21:16

score 0 · Answer 2 · answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:13

0

I'm pretty sure they're interchangeable

answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:13

Mina Han

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Jonathan · Answer 3 · 2015-06-25T21:40:46.720

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Python 2.7 interprets the two statements exactly the same (as NOTEQUAL). See tokenizer.c.

Also from docs:

!= can also be written <>, but this is an obsolete usage kept for backwards compatibility only. New code should always use !=.

(from https://docs.python.org/2/library/stdtypes.html#stdcomparisons)

How I read these statements

1 != 2: I read this as 1 is not equal to 2.

Knowing that python supports 1 < 2 < 3 to express inequalities, you can consider <> a shortcut for less than or greater than but not equal.

1 <> 2: I read this as 1 is less than 2 exclusive AND 1 is greater than 2 exclusive which happens to exclude the case x==y where x = y.

edited Jun 25 '15 at 21:40

answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:13

Jonathan

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This is not correct. – jonrsharpe Jun 25 '15 at 21:16
@jonrsharpe, really, why is it not correct? – Jonathan Jun 25 '15 at 21:18
...because what you've written doesn't match how the language works. `x <> y` is **not** interpreted as `(x < y) and (x > y)`. – jonrsharpe Jun 25 '15 at 21:19
sure - the language parses and interprets <> and != exactly the same. Edited to make it clear that is how `I` read the symbols. – Jonathan Jun 25 '15 at 21:32
But you still say *"They are equivalent in the statement you provided"*, suggesting that there are statements in which they aren't. And including chained comparisons seems completely irrelevant and bound to muddy the metaphorical waters. – jonrsharpe Jun 25 '15 at 21:33
@jonrsharpe - thanks for the help improving the answer. – Jonathan Jun 25 '15 at 21:37

score 0 · Answer 4 · answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:14

0

They have the same functionality. != is used by convention. The only reason <> still exists is for backward compatibility with older versions of Python.

answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:14

Kirtan Patel

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Heres a reference -> https://docs.python.org/2/library/stdtypes.html – Kirtan Patel Jun 25 '15 at 21:15

score 0 · Answer 5 · edited Jun 29 '15 at 13:16

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It is the same.

See the documentation: https://docs.python.org/2/library/stdtypes.html#stdcomparisons

!= can also be written <>, but this is an obsolete usage kept for backwards compatibility only. New code should always use !=.

edited Jun 29 '15 at 13:16

jonrsharpe

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answered Jun 25 '15 at 21:41

DevShark

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what is the Difference between <> and != in python

5 Answers5