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We all know if you back out of the Black Scholes option pricing model you can derive what the option is "implying" about the underlyings future expected volatility.

Is there a simple, closed form, formula deriving Implied Volatility (IV)? If so can you could you direct me to the equation?

Or is IV only numerically solved?

jessica
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6 Answers6

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The Black-Scholes option pricing model provides a closed-form pricing formula $BS(\sigma)$ for a European-exercise option with price $P$. There is no closed-form inverse for it, but because it has a closed-form vega (volatility derivative) $\nu(\sigma)$, and the derivative is nonnegative, we can use the Newton-Raphson formula with confidence.

Essentially, we choose a starting value $\sigma_0$ say from yoonkwon's post. Then, we iterate

$$ \sigma_{n+1} = \sigma_n - \frac{BS(\sigma_n)-P}{\nu(\sigma_n)} $$

until we have reached a solution of sufficient accuracy.

This only works for options where the Black-Scholes model has a closed-form solution and a nice vega. When it does not, as for exotic payoffs, American-exercise options and so on, we need a more stable technique that does not depend on vega.

In these harder cases, it is typical to apply a secant method with bisective bounds checking. A favored algorithm is Brent's method since it is commonly available and quite fast.

Brian B
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Brenner and Subrahmanyam (1988) provided a closed form estimate of IV, you can use it as the initial estimate:

$$ \sigma \approx \sqrt{\cfrac{2\pi}{T}} . \cfrac{C}{S} $$

Candamir
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yoonkwon
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    If you could embed the link to the article in your answer, it would be great. – SRKX Apr 17 '13 at 09:24
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    What are the definitions of T,C and S ? I'm guessing T is the Duration of the option-contract, C is the theoretical Call-value and S is the Strike-price, correct ? – Nick Oct 09 '13 at 12:49
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    No, S is the current price of the underlying. However the approximation by Brenner and Subrahmanyam works best for at the money options, hence the difference should be small in that case. – jcfrei May 09 '14 at 14:29
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    @Dominique (S = Spot price of the underlying, a.k.a. current price) – Franck Dernoncourt Jul 27 '17 at 18:43
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    The formula is based on the ATM price under normal model approximation. See https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/1154/26559 for further detail. – jChoi Aug 04 '18 at 15:19
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It is a very simple procedure and yes, Newton-Raphson is used because it converges sufficiently quickly:

  • You need to obviously supply an option pricing model such as BS.
  • Plug in an initial guess for implied volatility -> calculate the the option price as a function of your initial iVol guess -> apply NR -> minimize the error term until it is sufficiently small to your liking.
  • the following contains a very simple example of how you derive the implied vol from an option price: http://risklearn.com/estimating-implied-volatility-with-the-newton-raphson-method/

  • You can also derive implied volatility through a "rational approximation" approach (closed form approach -> faster), which can be used exclusively if you are fine with the approximation error or as a hybrid in combination with a few iterations of NR (better initial guess -> less iterations). Here a reference: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=952727

Brian B
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Matt Wolf
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There are some references on this topic. You may find them helpful.

Peter Jaeckel has articles named "By Implication (2006)" and "Let's be rational (2013)"

Li and Lee (2009) [download] An adaptive successive over-relaxation method for computing the Black–Scholes implied volatility

Stefanica and Radoicic (2017) An Explicit Implied Volatility Formula

jChoi
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The bisection method, Brent's method, and other algorithms should work well. But here is a very recent paper that gives an explicit representation of IV in terms of call prices through (Dirac) delta sequences:

Cui et al. (2020) - A closed-form model-free implied volatility formula through delta sequences

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To get IV I do the following: 1) change sig many times and calculate C in BS formula every time. That can be done with OIC calculator All other parameters are kept constant in BS call price calculations. The sig that corresponds to C value closest to the call market value is probably right. 2) without OIC calculator for every chosen sig I am using old approach: calculate d1, d2, Nd1, Nd2 and BS option value. Again calculated BS value closest to the market value probably correspond to correct IV.