I am trying to solve the problem: Given two assets X and Y that follow a log normal distribution with volatility $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_2$ respectively and with correlation $\rho$, what is the volatility of X*Y ?
I tried modelling X and Y as: $$dX_{t} = X_{t}(\mu dt + \sigma_{1}dW_{t}^{1})$$ $$dY_{t} = Y_{t}(\mu dt + \sigma_{2}(\rho dW_{t}^{1} + \sqrt{1-\rho^2}dW_{t}^{2}))$$ where $W_{t}^{1}$ and $W_{t}^{2}$ are independent. Assuming $\mu = 0$ and using Itô integration by parts formula for the dynamics of the process X*Y
$$d(XY)_{t} = X_{t}Y_{t}((\sigma_{1} + \sigma_{2}\rho)dW_{t}^{1} + \sigma_{2}\sqrt{1-\rho^2}dW_{t}^{2})$$ $$d(XY)_{t} = X_{t}Y_{t}d\hat{W}_{t}$$
Then I try to compute the variance of $\hat{W}_{t}$. I find that $\mathbb{V}(\hat{W}_{t}) = [(\sigma_{1} + \sigma_{2}\rho)^2 + \sigma_{2}^{2}(1- \rho^2)]t$
$d(XY)_{t} = X_tY_t\sqrt{(\sigma_{1} + \sigma_{2}\rho)^2 + \sigma_{2}^{2}(1-\rho^2)}dW_{t}$ where $dW = \frac{1}{\sqrt{(\sigma_{1} + \sigma_{2}\rho)^2 + \sigma_{2}^{2}(1-\rho^2)}}d\hat{W}_{t}$. I find that the volatility of XY is $\sqrt{(\sigma_{1} + \sigma_{2}\rho)^2 + \sigma_{2}^{2}(1-\rho^2)}$. Is that correct? I would like to get some advice on how to solve this type of problems.