I am currently reading John Hull's book and am a bit confused about the Ito's lemma when it is applied to the stock price. Given $dS=\mu Sdt+\sigma Sdz$, by applying Ito's lemma to $G=\ln S$, we have $$dG=(\mu-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})dt + \sigma dz$$
However, it seems that from $dS=\mu Sdt+\sigma Sdz$, if we rewrite it as $\frac{dS}{S}=\mu dt+\sigma dz$, then can we get $dG=d(\ln S)=\frac{dS}{S}=\mu dt+\sigma dz$?
I think the problem should be $d(\ln S)=\frac{dS}{S}$ does not hold, but I am wondering why this is the case?
Thank you!