Let $X_i$ be the result, where $X_i=1$ implies heads and $X_i=0$ as tails.
Let $\theta_j\in\{0.5,1\}$, where $\theta_j$ is the bias for heads.
$\theta_1=.5$ and $\theta_2=1$.
$$\Pr(\theta_1|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)\propto{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{10}}\frac{999}{1000}=\frac{999}{1000\times{1024}}.$$
$$\Pr(\theta_2|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)\propto{1^{10}}\frac{1}{1000}=\frac{1024}{1000\times{1024}}.$$
$$\Pr(X_{1\dots{10}}=1)=\frac{999+1024}{1000\times{1024}}$$
$$\Pr(\theta_1|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)=\frac{999}{999+1024}=\frac{999}{2023}$$
$$\Pr(\theta_2|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)=\frac{1024}{999+1024}=\frac{1024}{2023}$$
$$\Pr(X_{11}=1|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)=\sum_{j=1}^2\left[\theta_j(1-\theta_j)\right]\Pr(\theta_j|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)$$
$$\Pr(X_{11}=1|X_{1\dots{10}}=1)=\frac{1}{2}\frac{999}{2023}+1\frac{1024\times{2}}{2\times{2023}}=\frac{3047}{4046}\approx{.75}$$
I debated answering this question as it could be viewed as more appropriate for Cross Validated or Mathematics, however, I decided to do so for a couple of reasons directly related to QF.
First, quantitative finance is calculated gambling. Bayesian statistics are coherent. Frequentist statistics are incoherent. A statistic is considered coherent if a fair gamble can be created from it. It vastly exceeds the scope of your question, but if you are pricing a loan or an option then it is technically incorrect to use a Frequentist method, at least for a financial intermediary.
The second reason is that this problem is a discrete form of a real finance problem. Given an unknown parameter and a historical record, what is the probability of a future state of the world?
You need to get a very good grasp on the Bayesian prior distribution, the Bayesian posterior distribution and the Bayesian posterior predictive distribution.