-2

I know it has to be done through martingales, but I am not fully sure how to do this BSM pricing.

Daniel L.
  • 1
  • 1

1 Answers1

6

We assume that, under the risk-neutral measure, the stock price process $\{S_t, \, t\ge 0\}$ satisfies an SDE of the form \begin{align*} dS_t = S_t(rdt + \sigma dW_t), \end{align*} where $r$ is the constant interest rate, $\sigma$ is the constant volatility, and $\{W_t, \, t \ge 0\}$ is a standard Brownian motion. Then \begin{align*} S_T = S_0 e^{(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2) T + \sigma W_T}. \end{align*} Moreover, the option payoff $\ln S_T$ has a value given by \begin{align*} e^{-rT} E\big(\ln S_T\big) &= e^{-rT} E\Big(\ln S_0+\Big(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\Big) T + \sigma W_T \Big)\\ &=e^{-rT} \Big [\ln S_0+\Big(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\Big) T\Big]. \end{align*}

Gordon
  • 21,114
  • 1
  • 35
  • 80
  • The famous Log Contract http://quantlabs.net/academy/download/free_quant_instituitional_books_/[Journal%20of%20Portfolio%20Management,%20Neuberger]%20The%20Log%20Contract%20-%20A%20New%20Instrument%20to%20Hedge%20Volatility.pdf – nbbo2 Nov 15 '16 at 19:36
  • Thanks @noob2. Yes, for general volatility surface, we can approximate the log-payoff using the Carr-Madan Formula as here and here. – Gordon Nov 15 '16 at 19:40
  • +1. It seems like you've left out $\ln(S_0)$ though – Quantuple Nov 15 '16 at 21:57