When deriving the Black Scholes equation, it is usually stated "we assume the change in the stock price is":
$dS=\mu S(t) dt + $random term
My question is why is the change in the stock price always proportional to the stock price (ignoring the random term for now)? Is it simply because the stock pays dividends which are proprtional to the stock price (in which case $\mu$ must be related to dividends). How do you find what $\mu$ is for a given stock or option? Is $\mu$ always positive?