If a particle is subject to a constant acceleration $a$, the position of the particle after a certain time is given by the formula $s(t)=\frac{1}{2}at^2$. This immediately results in the formula $v(t)=at$ for the velocity as function of time. However, it is also possible to specify the velocity as a function of the position, the formula for this is $v(s)=\sqrt{2as}$.
I am now wondering the reverse. If someone tells me that the velocity of a particle after travelling a distance $s$ is given by $v(s)=\sqrt{2as}$, can I conclude unambiguously that the velocity as a function of time is given by $s(t)=\frac{1}{2}at^2$? (I strongly suspect that this is the case, but I can't prove it.)