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Why there is a factor of 4 in van der Waal's Volume Correction?

Sirees
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  • In book it has written that molecules have sphere of influence – Sirees Dec 08 '15 at 08:25
  • Same thing I am not understanding – Sirees Dec 08 '15 at 08:30
  • Please be more specific. Which correction are you talking about (including the equation into the post would already help a lot), what do you not understand about it? – ACuriousMind Dec 08 '15 at 13:40
  • There's also some explanations of this here: http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/119568/excluded-volume-calculation-in-van-der-waals-equation/307924#307924 – Alden Jan 27 '17 at 13:23

1 Answers1

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Consider one mole of gas composed of non-interacting point particles that satisfy the ideal gas law:

$$p=\frac{RT}{V_{m}}=\frac{RT}{v} $$

Next assume that all particles are hard spheres of the same finite radius r (the van der Waals radius). The effect of the finite volume of the particles is to decrease the available void space in which the particles are free to move. We must replace $V$ by $V − b$, where $b$ is called the excluded volume or "co-volume". The corrected equation becomes:

$$p=\frac{RT}{V_{m}-b} $$

The excluded volume $b$ is not just equal to the volume occupied by the solid, finite-sized particles, but actually four times that volume. To see this, we must realize that a particle is surrounded by a sphere of radius $2r$ (two times the original radius) that is forbidden for the centers of the other particles. If the distance between two particle centers were to be smaller than $2r$, it would mean that the two particles penetrate each other, which, by definition, hard spheres are unable to do.

The excluded volume for the two particles (of average diameter $d$ or radius $r$) is:

$$b'_{2}=4\pi\frac{d^{3}}{3}=8\cdot(4\pi r^{3}/3) $$

which divided by two (the number of colliding particles) gives the excluded volume per particle:

$$b'=b'_{2}/2 \rightarrow b'=4\cdot (4\pi r^{3}/3) $$

So $b′$ is four times the proper volume of the particle. It was a point of concern to van der Waals that the factor four yields an upper bound; empirical values for $b′$ are usually lower. Of course, molecules are not infinitely hard, as $\textit{van der Waals}$ thought, and are often fairly soft.

Picture

Source: Wikipedia

VlS
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  • Can you visualize this in picture – Sirees Dec 08 '15 at 09:01
  • No problem, done! @Sirees – VlS Dec 08 '15 at 09:13
  • As we considered this for one mole but one mole consist 6.023*10^23 molecules – Sirees Dec 08 '15 at 09:38
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    What is the logic behind the reasoning that we must divide the obtained value by 2 since two particles are colliding? And really, why do we consider the whole sphere, when clearly, other molecules can still occupy some portion of this sphere and is not completely "excluded"? –  Aug 24 '16 at 09:01
  • See my answer here to get some idea of why the value must be divided by 2: http://physics.stackexchange.com/a/307924/143458 – Alden Jan 27 '17 at 13:26
  • @KaumudiH The logic is that the 3 particle collisions are very less probable than the 2 particle collisions – Shah M Hasan Aug 24 '18 at 06:24