For example, if someone believes existence of god as a consequence of intuitive and instinctive thought, can we say he used reason to believe that?
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2No belief is derived from "perfectly logical procedure". Logic can only derive conclusions from premises, the premises have to come from somewhere else. Rationalists believe that our "rational nature" provides such premises in some form, be it innate ideas, judgment dispositions ("instincts") or rational intuitions, empiricists deny it, see SEP, Rationalism vs. Empiricism. Colloquially, people do apply "reasonable" to intuitive beliefs, although those may come from compressed empirical experience rather than "rational nature". – Conifold Mar 06 '23 at 09:13
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There once was a man from Greece//His name didn't rhyme with fleece//He asked questions nobody knew how to answer//He probably wasn't a good dancer. – Agent Smith Mar 06 '23 at 10:04
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@Conifold, was the text of the answer changed? Now it says "reason", not "logic". – David Gudeman Mar 06 '23 at 12:02
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Descartes considered impressions as clear and distinct as the Cogito to be equally true, since if otherwise Cogito becomes invalid. If intuition provides an impression having a quality close to that, it can be as true as well. – Nikos M. Mar 06 '23 at 13:45
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@DavidGudeman Yes I changed the main text thanks to his advice. But the title is same. – Vito Mar 06 '23 at 13:52
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@NikosM. Where can I find that? Is it in "Meditations on First Philosophy"? – Vito Mar 07 '23 at 02:12
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@Vito yes in the Meditations, see https://www.britannica.com/biography/Rene-Descartes/Meditations – Nikos M. Mar 07 '23 at 05:34
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Welcome to SE. Intuition and instinct are regarded as not rational, so the answer to the question as asked is, No. Your question would be much better if it asked whether intuition or instinct can be regarded as justifications for belief in God. It would help if you pointed out that belief in God is often justified by appeal to faith. – Ludwig V Mar 07 '23 at 19:19