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I was reading the SEP entry about the problem of evil, and there it says that What properties must something have if it is to be an appropriate object of worship, and if it is to provide reason for thinking that there is a reasonable chance that the fundamental human desires just mentioned will be fulfilled? A natural answer is that God must be a person who, at the very least, is very powerful, very knowledgeable, and morally very good.

The human desires mentioned are such as the desires that good will triumph, that justice be done, and that the world not be one where death marks the end of the individual’s existence.

Is omnipotency absolutely necessary for a God in a monotheistic religion, such as the one described by the SEP?

I'm not interested in those with an equally powerful counterpart, such as an evil one, for example.

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Omnipotence is a logically inconsistent notion so it cannot make any real sense.

A minimal God is what we think of as nature, which is potent as is possible but not omnipotent. So, no, a monotheist religion does not need to postulate omnipotence.

Why would anyone want to call nature 'God' is beyond me, but this is just the minimalist option. A God strictly in between omnipotent and nature would not be omnipotent.

Further, despite careless talk to the contrary, it seems that in monotheist religions, most believers do not in fact think of the god they believe in as omnipotent. Omnipotence is not just logically inconsistent, it also does not fit with most believers' personal experience of life and their belief that God is good.

EDIT - An even more minimalist notion of God would be to see some particular human being as God. Most gods are really just super-humans, or human-like things with superpowers, but we probably want our God to be the creator of the world, and Superman does not qualify.

Speakpigeon
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The SEP article on omnipotence seems to indicate that many analyses of theism nowadays tend to switch "omni-" out for "maxi-" in this context. Anselmian "perfect being" theology has won the day, so to say: God is simply defined as uniquely maximal over the hierarchy of agency, so in that sense it's "logically impossible" for God to occupy a lower level. (Actually, again with Anselm, you end up saying odd things like "God is identical to the level that God is on," which in Anselm was the equation of deity with eternity.)

It's not clear whether a definition from the power of creation would do the trick. A powerful enough version of the uncreated-created distinction-and-relation requires its ultimate holder to be a se, and it is seemingly contradictory to try representing a being who is a se but also possibly weaker than some other being. (To put it more finely, though, it might be that an a se being was thought to be counterfactually weaker than some impossible being, with all possible beings incapable of being stronger than the object of aseity.) However, if the full power of creation is ambiguous between being held by only uncreated beings and potentially being accessible by created beings, then it is not clear that we have lost out on a description of a divine being such that this being gained its stature. Marduk and the Jade Emperor in their respective narratives, I believe, achieved their rank in their victory over some cosmically menacing force, and many Christians did plainly adapt that imagery to their accounts of Christ (see e.g. John Milton's closing lines in Paradise Regained). And Ahura Mazda, before the Zurvanite development in that theology, was still unequal over Ahriman at least in the sense that Ahura Mazda's victory during the Frashokereti seemed entirely assured, the Saoshyant's role not representing a mortal contingency at all (anymore than most Christians, even the most unitarian among them (again e.g. Milton, perhaps), have ever thought it contingent that the Son of Man would fulfill his role as the Son of God).ئێزیدی

So the requirement of necessarily maximal power comes from the requirement of necessarily defeating the most powerful evil. Then, depending on one's understanding of maximal possibilities, one might or might not go on to full omnipotence simpliciter (an extreme enough theist might claim that God actually causes the law of non-contradiction to be true, say, and that if God did not do this, then some insane force of chaos would devour reality, so as if to say that God is "victorious over" logical hell: but then so as if to say that it is good that God stabilizes the logos of the universe, and then to accomplish this great good, God needs to have power over even the laws of logic, somehow).

ئێزیدیThe Yazidi narrative, if I remember correctly, is that the greatest of the angels (or angel-equivalents) became an object of reverence on account of its tears quenching the fires of Hell (for this, the Yazidis were slandered by H. P. Lovecraft as "devil-worshipers"). I don't recall what kind of power-level changes, if any, accompanied the ritual of this exaltation. But still, this angel-savior had to have enough power for its sadness to negate the rage of damnation: so would we ever want to say something like, "Only an all-powerful being can have tears strong enough to wash away the fires of Hell"?

Kristian Berry
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    Maybe I should tie in a citation-link for what I say about Milton. I mean, the nod to PR's end, that can be Googled right quick, but my contention that Milton was either unitarian or unitarian-aligned is more... contentious... yet between the description of the Son of God in both PL and PR, IDK... I'll look this up because I think I did before, too, and I think there is some analysis out there of this question. – Kristian Berry Mar 04 '23 at 13:57
  • So it seems that the capabilities of logic are not enough for even formally characterising the different intuitions behind omnipotency without arriving at contradictions. Then I guess the plain-language answer to my question would be "we don't know" because we are still trying to find how to speak about it? –  Mar 04 '23 at 14:00
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    @eirene there's a wacky puzzle in deontic logic, called the "logical-necessity-of-obligations" puzzle, where a very simple/naive system of deontic logic generates the conclusion that some entity permanently exists, or a permanent sequence of entities exists, such that they are under permanent obligation to uphold the Law of Non-contradiction. Now almost no logician, to my knowledge, accepts this conclusion rather than jettison the naive system, but theologians, on the other hand... – Kristian Berry Mar 04 '23 at 14:03
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No. Consider the possibility that religions are a form of indoctrination perpetuated by special interest groups. The gods they promote have whatever properties are required to appeal to the indoctrinated, and more besides. There is no need for parsimony when attributing abilities to a god. You might therefore ask whether there is a minimum subset of abilities that a given god might require in order to maintain consistency with that god's associated storyline. To take the Catholic god, for example- he or she requires a number of powers, including the power to:

Cast out devils

Bring a person back to life

Feed a multitude with a small amount of fish and bread

Turn water into wine

Judge the soul of every person when they die (a full time occupation in itself, I imagine)

Listen to and selectively answer prayers

Maintain an eternal heaven and hell

Part the Red Sea

Create the Universe

Manifest to a small subset of humans to perform various functions, eg demonstrate fiery wrath etc

And so on.

Whether those powers amount to omnipotence, I would not care to say without listing them exhaustively (recognising that an exhaustive list of the facets of omnipotence might be an oxymoron).

Certainly it might be convenient for the perpetuators of a given religion to limit the powers of their gods in selective ways in order to furnish plausible explanations for the fact that many things happen in the world that a benevolent and omnipotent god might be expected to prevent.

Marco Ocram
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  • But if removing omnipotency can be a solution to the problem of evil (see here for example, also what you say at the end of the answer), then why most monotheistic religions postulate omnipotency? I though there might be some logic there so that they can't avoid it. –  Mar 04 '23 at 13:35
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    @eirene I would say that logic and religion are not particularly compatible. – Marco Ocram Mar 04 '23 at 15:03
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    @eirene Omipotence and monotheism appeals to order, divine providence, and purposeful existence in a way that the chaotic existence of the polytheism pantheon cannot. As an absurdist, the toughest burden to bear is that all of our deepest altruistic and moral impulses have no bearing on how how nature functions. Babies die, loved one suffer, and in the end we rot. Omnipotence and the afterlife is a carrot dangled to fool us into faith, usually with good intentions – J D Mar 05 '23 at 05:17
  • The "catholic god" is not defined as "he or she", 2. Creating the Universe out of nothing, and being beyond time (so no "full time occupation in itself, I imagine"), is many orders of magnitude over turning water into wine, mixing them is disingenuous.
  • – vsz Mar 06 '23 at 05:18
  • @vsz Disingenuous??? I juxtaposed them precisely to highlight the absurdity. – Marco Ocram Mar 06 '23 at 09:53
  • @vsz -- The doctrine of an eternal God outside time, is inconsistent with much of the Bible. God gets angry, makes mistakes, and regretfully admits to them (promising Noah he will never destroy the world again). Then supposedly there is a new dispensations with the appearance of Jesus, as the rules for humans change from legalism to salvation -- BECAUSE LEGALISM DIDN'T WORK! All of this is inconsistent with an "eternal unchanging, perfect" God. The theology of eternalism is imported from Neo-Platonism and is incompatible with basically the entire Bible. – Dcleve Mar 10 '23 at 15:14
  • @Dcleve : it is not that clear-cut, there are several explanations which can make it consistent. The main one is the concept of free will. God have humans the possibility to choose. If God always predicted what we'd do and acted to prevent all ill, then there would be no free will. If God magicked us to do whatever, instead of letting us free (and only scolding us instead of magically forcing us, if we did bad things), we wouldn't have had free will. "inconsistent with much of the Bible" is not really true, because right at the very beginning God is depicted as having created the whole world – vsz Mar 11 '23 at 12:30
  • @vsz A God out of time will never be surprised by any free willing, it will be known for eternity. And such a God will never change behavior or be regretful. None of this is consistent with the Bible. – Dcleve Mar 12 '23 at 04:21
  • @vsz Your comments on free will are an effort to rationalize the problem of evil, not address that a God who is outside of time can never undergo a state change, much less causal state sequencing. And it doesn’t work for the Problem of Evil either, for multiple reasons, read my answer for a few. – Dcleve Mar 12 '23 at 04:25