0

In his book on Logic,Hegel makes a counter proof of the old way of defining Logic. I have trouble understanding in which way Aristotle or Descartes were wrong according to him. Could someone explain? Thanks edit: It is previously said that Aristotle bounds logic and metaphysics together,then a little a passage from the book:"

After having considered the middle term as a specy and his quantitative relationships with the extremes,he considers the proposition from the point of view of the cause and the essence,posing the essence as the middle term or the absolute principle of the proof.

It seems there is a contradiction because Aristotle only studies the quantities and not the qualities of the objects so not the essence.

maths_mz
  • 1
  • 1

0 Answers0