[I'm sorry for my incorrect English] Hello, I studied the Critique of Judgment of Immanule Kant, and I don't understand, how Kant solve the problem of the difference between Critique of Pure Reason and Critique of Practical Reason (phenomenon/noumenon, understanding/reason, determinism/freedom). if it doesn't bother you, can someone help me?
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Too many questions all at once for me. How about sticking to the one in the title? – Mar 10 '19 at 12:20
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Sorry, I don't understand, I made only one question. – mklplo Mar 10 '19 at 13:17
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You ask also about phenomenon/noumenon, understanding/reason and determinism/freedom. I would suggest just sticking to the first pair. . – Mar 10 '19 at 13:24
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Ok, I thought, that when Kant answered in the Critique of Judgment at the first question, he answered at all those question. – mklplo Mar 10 '19 at 13:38
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1You might be right, but it makes life difficult for anyone trying to answer. Or maybe it's just me. Let's see what other say.. – Mar 10 '19 at 13:43
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1Related Is noumenon to phenomenon for Kant what substance is to accident for Aristotle? It is not very clear what "the problem of the difference" is, he rather uses the distinction between the pure and practical reason to resolve the apparent problems, between determinism and freedom, etc. See also Kant's Distinction Between Theoretical and Practical Knowledge by Enfistrom. – Conifold Mar 11 '19 at 21:45