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At the tail end of Kant and the Critique of Pure Reason Gardner discusses Kant's influence on his successors. He claims---and I'm paraphrasing here---Hegel wanted his metaphysics to be scientific, i.e., to all unfold from a single principle. Kant's work does not descend from a single principle, but instead draws from actual experience to get us, for instance, inner and outer sense, and the specific categories.

This rings true. There are certainly a number of times when Kant seems to throw his hands in the air and say that things just are. Hegel's response, quoth Gardner, was to try and make a new system, which would surpass Kant's, and all unfold from a single principle.

Is this actually Hegel's definition of a science? I couldn't find anything online that would confirm it.

I've only read PR and some of PS; I can't say much about Hegel's metaphysics. But in PR Hegel explicitly states that philosophy is a circle. Of course a circle has no point of origin. Did Hegel think his system did indeed unfold from a single point? How did he explain this, given the whole "philosophy is a circle" thing?

Canyon
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    I don't know much about Hegel, but I wonder if there might be some confusion from the fact that the German word "Wissenschaft" is translated into English as "Science", even though it means something more general than that. – Alexander S King Aug 28 '17 at 21:35
  • I'd like to answer your question, but I need to clarification on two things: (1) is the question that you want answered: Does Hegel think philosophy is a science or does Hegel think philosophy descends from a single principle (as a definition of science)? (2) By PR do you mean Philosophy of Right and by PS Phenomenology of Spirit? – virmaior Aug 28 '17 at 21:51
  • I'm pretty confident Hegel thinks (his) philosophy is scientific, so I'll go with does Hegel think philosophy descends from a single principle...? (Though if I'm wrong on that, please, tell me!) 2. You have my abbreviations correct.
  • – Canyon Aug 28 '17 at 21:56
  • Where have you seen Kant "seem to throw his hands in the air and say that things just are"? – Ram Tobolski Aug 28 '17 at 23:06
  • That's from me. The thing that comes most readily to mind is on why sensibility is divided into inner and outer sense, but I can come up with more. – Canyon Aug 28 '17 at 23:35
  • "Dictionary of untranslatables : a philosophical lexicon", Princeton Univ. Press. Reference section of larger libraries I go to for problem words in translation. When I luck up and find a covered word or phrase, this book is very helpful. – Gordon Aug 29 '17 at 00:28
  • husser said the same –  Aug 29 '17 at 02:30
  • Where is it, that Kant speaks thus of why sensibility is divided into inner and outer sense? Can you provide a reference? (by the way, please @mention me when you comment. Otherwise I don't get notified) – Ram Tobolski Aug 29 '17 at 04:17
  • @RamTobolski I'll try and dig it up---I think it's somewhere in the deduction, or maybe the schematization where he says something along the lines of "and I can no more explain this than I can why sensibility is divided into inner and outer". But I'll look. – Canyon Aug 29 '17 at 06:03
  • Thanks. While you dig it up, I may add that Kant said about Aristotle the same thing that Hegel (supposedly) said about Kant: that Aristotle's list of categories was, unlike Kant's own, empirical, not scientific, not based on a single principle, etc. – Ram Tobolski Aug 29 '17 at 07:26
  • Hegel claimed that philosophy, at least his philosophy, was Wissenschaft. This is the concept that needs exploring; only when we are clear about Wissenschaft can we usefully considered whether it does or can apply to philosophy and how far if at all our concept of science, or which if any of our concepts of science, corresponds to it. The point has appeared in Comments and Answers; I have tried to elaborate it. – Geoffrey Thomas Jul 05 '18 at 17:13