34

I'm far from being an expert in the field of mathematical logic, but I've been reading about the academic work invested in the foundations of mathematics, both in a historical and objetive sense; and I learned that it all seems to reduce to a proper -axiomatic- formulation of set theory.

It also seems that all set theories (even if those come in ontologically different flavours, such as the ones which pursue the "iterative approach" like ZFC, versus the "stratified approach" -inspired by Russell's and Whitehead's type theory first formulated in their Principia- such as Quine's NFU or Mendelson's ST) are built as collections of axioms expressed in a common language, which invariably involves an underlying first order predicate logic augmented with the set-membership binary relation symbol. From this follows that FOL makes up the (necessary) "formal template" in mathematics, at least from a foundational perspective.

The justification of this very fact, is the reason behind this question. All the stuff I've read about the metalogical virtues of FOL and the properties of its "extensions" could be summarized as the statements below:

  • FOL is complete (Gödel, 1929), compact and sound, and all its particular formalizations as deductive systems are equivalent (Lindström, 1969). That means that, given a (consistent) collection of axioms on top of a FOL deductive system, the set of all theorems which are syntactically provable, are semantically satisfied at least by one model of the axioms. The specification of the axioms absolutely entails all its consequences; and the fact that every first order deductive system is equivalent, suggests that FOL is a context-independent (i.e. objective), formal structure.
  • On the other hand, the Löwenheim–Skolem theorem implies that FOL cannot categorically characterize infinite structures, and so every first order theory satisfied by a model of a particular infinite cardinality, is also satisfied by multiple additional models of every other infinite cardinality. This non-categoricity feature is explained to be caused by the lack of expressive power of FOL.
  • The categoricity results that FOL-based theories cannot achieve, can be obtained in a Second Order Logic (SOL) framework. Examples abound in ordinary mathematics, such as the Least Upper Bound axiom, which allows the definition of the real number system up to isomorphism. Nevertheless, SOL fails to verify an analog to the completeness results of FOL, and so there is no general match between syntactic provability and semantic satisfiability (in other words, it doesn't admit a complete proof calculus). That means that, even if a chosen collection of axioms is able to categorically characterize an infinite mathematical structure, there is an infinite set of wff's satisfied by the unique model of the axioms which cannot be derived through deduction.
  • The syntactic-semantic schism in SOL also implies that there is no such a thing as an equivalent formulation of potential deductive systems, as is the case in FOL and stated by Lindström's theorem. One of the results of this fact is that the domain over which second order variables range must be specified, otherwise being ill-defined. If the domain is allowed to be the full set of subsets of the domain of first order variables, the corresponding standard semantics involve the formal properties stated above (enough expressive power to establish categoricity results, and incompleteness of potential, non-equivalent deductive systems). On the other hand, through an appropiate definition of second order domains for second order variables to range over, the resultant logic exhibits nonstandard semantics (or Henkin semantics) which can be shown to be equivalent to many-sorted FOL; and as single-sorted FOL, it verifies the same metalogical properties stated at the begining (and of course, its lack of expressive power).
  • The quantification extension over variables of successive superior orders can be formalized, or even eliminate the distinction between individual (first order) variables and predicates; in each case, is obtained -for every N- an Nth Order Logic (NOL), and Higher Order Logic (HOL), respectively. Nevertheless, it can be shown (Hintikka, 1955) that any sentence in any logic over FOL with standard semantics to be equivalent (in an effective manner) to a sentence in full SOL, using many-sorting.
  • All of this points to the fact that the fundamental distinction, in logical terms, lies between FOL (be it single-sorted or many-sorted) and SOL (with standard semantics). Or what seems to be the case, the logical foundations of every mathematical theory must be either non-categorical or lack a complete proof calculus, with nothing in between that trade-off.

Why, so, is FOL invariably chosen as the underlying logic on top of which the set theoretical axioms are established, in any potentially foundational formalization of mathematics?

As I've said, I'm not an expert in this topic, and I just happen to be interested in these themes. What I wrote here is a summary of what I assume I understood of what I read (even though I'm personally inclined against the people who speaks about what they don't fully understand). In this light, I'd be very pleased if any answer to this question involves a rectification of any assertion which happened to be wrong.

Julius Hamilton
  • 1,559
  • 4
  • 29
Mono
  • 616
  • 6
  • 9
  • From your elaborations, it might well be that you know the following threads or their content, but I will point out this thread on the mathematics board and especially the links posted therein. Additionally, a question I asked here ended up being pretty much on this topic as well. – Nikolaj-K Jul 25 '12 at 14:05
  • I've been thinking about it, and the lack of response from the philosopher's community might be because this is an overly-mathematical question, and so I should try to repost it in Math.SE. I've been visiting periodically the SE network for some time by now because of the quality of the answers given, but only a few days ago I decided to join in, so I'm fairly ignorant about all the rules and capabilites of the site. So, I may ask you:
    1. Is there a way to "migrate" a question from a Q&A site to other in the network without "manually" (i.e. copy&paste) reposting?
    – Mono Jul 26 '12 at 19:08
  • My recent experience in the physics site apparently suggests that overly-long, elaborated questions which don't exhibit a simple, concise and easily-recognizable textbook answer are not well received (at least there). Is this a general feature, or questions like this have chances of not getting closed if posted at Math.SE? The time I've been hanging around wasn't enough for me to be sure about this.
  • – Mono Jul 26 '12 at 19:16
  • (i) From the stackExchange structure, I consider neighter of the these sites (physics or philosophy, and to some extend math too) a good place for the questions that are really interesting, because from these type of questions, you usually learn through discussion. Questions on the math board usually have an answer, imho, if they are "philosophical" in nature than they are eighter no real math questions, or they are about certain concepts, for which one is unsure of the definition. As for this question, I don't see why FOL needs more arguments than the bunch of points you are already aware of. – Nikolaj-K Jul 26 '12 at 19:49
  • (ii) I think that you can make a SOL-set theory-foundation. But in the links people discuss that they've rather never seen it, so I conclude that there are just not enought resources - after all, you can simulate SOL ind FOL, as they say. Coming back, basically the sites are good for question, which you could answer yourself, if you take the time to read the right books. These are also important questions of course, because people have finite time. I'm willing for some discussion - but then again you say you don't want non-experts to open their mouths and I basically have less clue than you ;) – Nikolaj-K Jul 26 '12 at 19:53
  • (iii) Oh and yes, someone (moderators?) is able to move question from one board to the other. – Nikolaj-K Jul 26 '12 at 19:56
  • Thanks for taking the time to answer me, Nick. I have to agree that the picture you give is correct: one cannot complain about Q&A sites in trying to focus on their original objectives. But again, the awkward thing is, we have here a lot of smart people which you could hardly find anywhere else, and yet in the name of the cleanliness of the platform we are expected not to engage in deeper discussion among us. Maybe I should explore the chat app -I haven't checked it yet- but it seems to be mainly a one-to-one way of privately discussing topics. I undoubtedly prefer public discussion, though. – Mono Jul 26 '12 at 20:42
  • And for the "don't want non-experts to open their mouths" quote: I just made clear my condition of non-expert (and I could add, someone who doesn't have any plans to make a living out of this stuff) to put the question in context. Perhaps someone who completely understands all the consequences of the summary I stated above would find the question blatantly obvious. I just can't know. In a sense, I tried to make explicit what everyone else should interpret about my understanding of the field in order to give an answer. But your willingness to discuss is more than welcome, of course! – Mono Jul 26 '12 at 20:59
  • It seems that in the link you posted in the comment to the answer, you're refering to my back and forth with one answer giver regarding the necessiry for context to distinguish between FOL and SOL statements. If that's so I'm happy to indirectly provide you with some information and I'm happy there are people having the same questions ^^ – Nikolaj-K Aug 20 '12 at 14:05
  • addon: In the discussions of one of your threads you seem to be satisfied by FOL because there is the completeness theorem. While you struggle with the semantics of second order logic, I still have enough problems with the semantics of first order logic, hehe. See e.g. my thread here (the discussion I have there) followed by me trying to make sense of it here. – Nikolaj-K Aug 20 '12 at 14:45
  • I suppose you are citing the last reference I left in this question of mine, and yes, that back and forth in which you participated was very helpful indeed. As you correctly realized it, we seem to be worried about the same stuff. On your addon, there's a perfectly explainable reason why I don't bother too much with the semantics of FOL, but I'd like to put it all in an answer if you wrote it as question. – Mono Aug 21 '12 at 04:30
  • 2
    The thing goes like this: in FOL, you get around semantical issues because you never really get to know what you are talking about when you write down the axioms and the inference rules of your formalized theory. That literally means that (for example) the negation of a Gödel sentence "G" of a FO theory "T" can be added to it to obtain a perfectly consistent stronger theory "T + ¬G" (assuming consistency of T), and then you see that your original theory had models very esoteric -because the remaining models in which ¬G is true are not standard, i.e. in them, it doesn't mean what you "read"-. – Mono Aug 21 '12 at 04:41
  • 3
    So, if T = PA and G = Con(PA), in a model of "T + ¬G", ¬G doesn't mean what you read, that is, that PA is in fact inconsistent. It is just a formal property which needs another interpretion to be sound (the building of an appropriate model is, actually, the way to find the needed interpretation). Of course, in the "standard interpretation" G is true and ¬G is false; but that means that you already know what you were talking about, for example, what is a natural number, so the interpretation was fixed by you in advance. That, formalistically talking, doesn't make sense. – Mono Aug 21 '12 at 04:52
  • If you want me to see stuff you should reference my name. Also, I don't think or see what you say resolves my issues. The G vs. not G thread is a vehicle to answer the problems from the comment section of the other thread I posted. Namely in which sense peolpe think something is true without a need for a proof. My problem is almost before set theory and models - people feel that there is a truth, which guides what to model. That's really only platonism vs. (maybe my personal variant of) formalism. And I want to be able to understand the platonists, because mathematical history is full of them. – Nikolaj-K Aug 24 '12 at 07:43
  • I don't get what you complain about in your first sentence. I didn't try to persuade you to "see any stuff", and I don't get where the "personal reference" comes about. On the other hand, there's nothing impenetrable about platonism: if you hold that strings of symbols are mere scratches on paper unless you can identify them with some mathematical property you recognize (for example, you could see "%<$!$<%" and recognize the commutative property of an abelian group, where "%" and "$" are metavariables, "<" is the group operation and "!" is the equality symbol), then you're one. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 15:17
  • 1
    The sense in which "people think something is true without a need for a proof" is at the heart of discussions about axiomatizations of any sufficiently complex mathematical field, i.e. where incompleteness holds. Axioms (if you're a platonist, as most mathematicians actually are) might not be just a string of symbols, but we should be able to interpret them as meaningful properties of abstract objects; the problem is that incompleteness brings about a multiplicity of consistent axiomatic systems, and some of them have weird properties satisfied by their semantics. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 15:29
  • 1
    In essence, the platonist "favours" one kind of semantics (in a FOT like ZFC it means "the" universe of sets V, and in PA it means "the" natural numbers N) for the formalisms he writes down, but there are always weird alternative semantics to those (the "standard" ones) which nevertheless satisfy the axioms -and make them "true" under those semantics indeed-. How does the platonist find the "right" semantics? The godelian position is that (mathematical) intuition does the job. My personal opinion on this is that intuition works only in the finite realm but fails in the transfinite. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 15:41
  • I didn't get the comment the last time, this was what the first sentence was about and by reference I mean using the @. – Nikolaj-K Aug 24 '12 at 16:56
  • @NickKidman: I apologize if I misunderstood you. I'm not a logician, but this is what I've concluded from reading about the subject. FOL seems to have a level of "freedom" in it's semantics, that makes the platonist issue a matter of "familiarity" or "intuitive pattern recognition" when the mathematician interacts with the formal system. That being said, I think that the multiplicity of independent semantics (mutually inconsistent models) which are able to satisfy the same set of FO axioms, in some sense implies the contingency of every interpretation, even the standard (platonist) one. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 17:27
  • I don't really understand you or know how you interpret my issues, but thanks for the input anyway. – Nikolaj-K Aug 24 '12 at 17:29
  • @NickKidman: as this is getting a bit too long, may I suggest you again to post this as a direct question? Unless, of course, that you've already done it. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 17:34
  • I don't see a way of asking the question which would bring about a neutral or even definitive answer. – Nikolaj-K Aug 24 '12 at 17:45
  • @NickKidman: well, that's another story. What I got from your replies here is that you are puzzled by the fact that someone can believe in the truth of a mathematical statement because it "feels" to be the case -the intuition behind the ideas upon which axiomatic systems are built. My position is that (in FOL) that is probably not an issue, because we are fooled by intuition when dealing with infinite structures, so there's no fundamental justification to the notion of "standard semantics" -i.e. that V or N are perfectly defined objects. They aren't. – Mono Aug 24 '12 at 17:55
  • I just noticed your comment about V. Regarding the problem of finding the right model, you may be interested in this post. Anyway, I don't really understand your question here. Reality seems to obey classical FOL completely. Isn't that enough to want to work within FOL? In any case, what do you mean by "fundamental"? All commonly touted versions of "mathematical platonism" are ill-defined, so what does "fundamental" mean here? – user21820 Jun 07 '21 at 07:48