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When thinking of cycles and myths, one cannot pass the idea of Kronos or Kali. That brought me to form some questions about the nature of time.

Three definitions for time:

  1. Time is a measure of the change. Change is a result of the forces.

  2. Time can be understood as a consciousness of history—present and future—which emerge from capable of memorizing.

  3. Time is relative, as per Einstein.

Time as a relative, yet real, "thing" is confusing (at least, I'm probably not only one in the world who thinks so!). Everything in the universe seems to be in motion. Atoms, cells, and even inner human organs are in constant change; the earth rotates and orbits around the sun. The sun orbits and rotates within the galaxy; the galaxy rotates and orbits or expands or moves in space. Maybe a huge unisystem (contra ecosystem) of galaxies is still moving as a group. Now, because there is so much movement and forces, why can one say that time slows in moving objects or that it is something real, something more than change and movement and concept of human mind?

It has been said that time is relative to gravity. If so, what is the exact particle that one would measure and compare to gravity? Say our head is 72 inches above the ground. Time passes more slowly around our head than by our toes. Does this mean that aging is different for different parts of the body, or merely that the atoms gets older, or that the earth's rotation compared to the sun's is different for the head and toes, and so forth, up to a higher scale?

The primitive natural way to understand time is to see the change of days and years. Think of time traveller who takes a trip in speed of light years and comes back and sees everything is 5 years older than what his clock says. Of course, time travel itself brings up plenty of paradoxes in a physical sense, but what I'm thinking is did the traveller's aging process slow down, or did the planets' and sun's, or even the whole galaxy change its speed relative to the traveller and people on earth? Or was it only the atomic clock that slowed down?

I'm not sure if I'm able to to describe the problem I'm facing when trying to understand what is really meant with special relativity theory. I guess it is really something that occurs on an atomic or quantum level, and only at huge speeds, which brings me to question—is there any real world usage for the theory?

Related reading:

Additional thoughts:

The starting point of orbit in the case of the earth is relative to four cardinal points of seasons. As well, day and night act as starting points in a shorter time scale. But when it comes to evolutions of the solar system, one cannot really describe the point at which we find some relative point either in the whole planetary system or outside of it. But in all cases, it is just a matter definition and a commonly accepted cardinal point that one tries to discover from ever-changing parts of the system.

What I also tried to ask was, is time bending on sub- and/or sur-systems in relative theory? That's fundamental, I think, because there are vehicles in vehicles in vehicles moving at different speeds in space.

Update in 2016

I'd still say that this is a fundamental question in many ways. Coincidently in 2012, when I formed this question, American theoretical physicist, Lee Smolin wrote a book Time reborn that deals with the topic. From his later essay (2013) we can read:

I argue here that the key issue responsible for divergent versions of naturalism and divergent approaches to cosmology is the conception of time. One version, which I call temporal naturalism, holds that time, in the sense of the succession of present moments, is real, and that laws of nature evolve in that time.

But on the other hand in the forementioned book, chapter 3, he follows Leibniz and states:

there can be no absolute time... time must be a consequence of change... without alteration there can be no time

Which draws back to the question if time is just an epithet for change and motion thus using either term is just a matter of taste.

Altogether Smolin's angle to the time seems to be more raised toward Platonism, Newtonism and Einsteinism, where Reality was regarded as a timeless and an untouchable dimension. But does he describe the nature of the time itself, one should read his books and essay and make careful notes to see.

MarkokraM
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    Can you make the question more clear, asking about relativity theory is not what this forum is meant for – apoorv020 Apr 18 '12 at 06:51
  • Center of the question is on the title, but the answer might strongly contain elaboration of the theory of the quantum physics. I'm still interested to hear philosophical, maybe philosophy of science view of point to the topic. – MarkokraM Apr 18 '12 at 11:11
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    The philosophical literature on time is enormous, and includes works as disparate as Kant's Critique of Pure Reason and Heidegger's Being and Time. You're going to have to narrow your question down quite a bit for it to be useful here, and remove the sections that relate to physics, as those are best answered elsewhere. – Michael Dorfman Apr 18 '12 at 11:30
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    2 points: 1 - I think you meant to say that time passes more quickly for our head than toes (time slows down as you approach a black hole because of the distortion caused by gravity). 2 - Question: "Is there any real world usage for this theory?" Answer: GPS Note: I haven't made this an answer because I doubt it's complete enough. – commando Apr 18 '12 at 12:35
  • You are right, I was thinking it other way around. 2. GPS time dilation is fascinating. I need to read it more, but as a first thought isn't it just a problem of atom clocks they use on different heights and speeds? Or does it mean every kind of ticking device, counting human biological clocks like heart beat as well as time glass, water clock, watch gets slower? Its mind boggling...
  • – MarkokraM Apr 18 '12 at 14:02
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    @PHPGAE The theory is that time literally slows down - it's not that atoms happen to vibrate more slowly, but that every process, the very passing of time itself (truly mind-boggling and abstract) has slowed down. – commando Apr 18 '12 at 16:09
  • @PHPGAE. Your question and subsequent replies to comments are confusing. Relative time, in terms of the relativity of simultaneity and relativistic time dilation, is a physical (i.e. not mere conceptual) reality--and so is length contraction. But to explain what the relativity of time means, there has to be common ground. That is, you'd need to be familiar with the Galilean transformations, Newton's concept of absolute time and space, et al. in order to see how the Lorentz transformations describe the relativity of time and length. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 17:40
  • @apoorv020. Why is asking about relativity theory "not what this forum is meant for?" For one thing, Einstein, when he was developing his theory of special relativity, had Hume's Treatise in mind. But either way, philosophy is not constricted to academic and scholarly papers, books, etc.. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 17:47
  • @commando. Time slows down, depending on the inertial frame of reference. Depending on the inertial frame of reference, length contracts. The factor by which time lengthens (i.e. "slows down") is given by 1/sqrt(1 - v^2/c^2) where v is the velocity of an inertial frame of reference (any frame of reference, as there is no absolute time or space). Comparing two inertial frames of reference, one of which can be taken as at rest, relates the relative times, lengths of the two system, depending on which system (i.e. which set of coordinates one is observing an event from). – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 18:01
  • But as to what time itself is (or as importantly space), I'd consider looking into Minkowski's Space and Time for an introduction to the concept of spacetime--but before you do so, you must be familiar with certain physical and mathematical concepts (such as non-Euclidian space, Einstein-Lorentz transformations, 4-vector algebra, and so on). Remember: philosophical questions are only meaningful if one has the proper tools of description, or explanation. Before one is able to think meaningfully about these sorts of questions, one must be equipped to do so. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 18:14
  • @MichaelDorfman."remove the sections that relate to physics, as those are best answered elsewhere"--this makes very little sense. Why must the sections that relate to physics be removed? Yet, you mention Kant's CPR. You might want to look into the relation between the CPR and Newton's Principia; upon doing so, you may find it more difficult to separate the philosophers (and "their" ideas) and the physicists (and their ideas). Philosophy used to encompass the sciences; yet, as the sciences became more complicated, philosophy, was unable to keep up. But this doesn't mean it shouldn't. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 18:22
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    @Jon: In my view, philosophy can leave to the sciences those matters which the scientific method can handle; there's plenty leftover to keep us busy. – Michael Dorfman Apr 23 '12 at 19:30
  • @MichaelDorfman. Philosophy cannot speak of such concepts of which it is ignorant. With the ever widening gap between and among the sciences, philosophy is left with very little it can earnestly speak about. (Perhaps philosophy is becoming psychology; that is, it can only speak meaningfully about psychological phenomena, as it is incapable of dealing with "those matters which the scientific method can handle"--whatever that means....) Philosophy cannot speak of time, as it is ignorant of the language that makes such speech intelligible. If philosophy is to be meaningful, there must be rigor. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 23:22
  • Further, when philosophy once reigned atop the universities of the Old World, it encompassed all the sciences--Maxwell was a professor of metaphysics at Edinburgh! And, at that time, the layman was quite ignorant of logical, epistemological, and metaphysical languages, systems, in which philosophy lived. Now, philosophy is ignorant of the systems of the sciences--chiefly because (and here's my opinion), those who would have been philosophers years ago are now scientists, and those unable to do philosophy, the layman, years ago are now philosophers. The latter group has hijacked philosophy. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 23:27
  • So this is a longwinded way of saying that philosophy (if it is to be worthwhile at all) cannot leave the sciences to their thing and be satisfied with its limited domain. It must once again understand the sciences (at least at a preliminary level) for it to have import. However, an objection might be that they are too specialized, too particular, too time consuming, etc.. Holistically, this is true. But one can be conversant without being fluent--philosophers are often neither. So, anyway, I object, with every bone in my body, to the notion that philosophy can/should leave the sciences alone. – Jon Apr 23 '12 at 23:31
  • Philosophy was meant for people who loved wisdom using all available tools to gain it i.e. tools of knowledge, empiric research and ethics. I think the necessity of philosophy arises from the fact there is an interpreter for observations we make and it will question the whole process to keep it on right track. When questioning aims to oneself, like I'm questioning if my interpretation about time is correct, true, it becomes near to psychological experience. But I would say, the starting point was philosophical indeed, even it may resolve by science. – MarkokraM Apr 24 '12 at 04:43
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    @Jon: I think you are underestimating the task of philosophy. There are many serious questions about time, for example, that physics has no role in answering. I'm not saying that philosophy should leave science alone-- Philosophy of Science is an important discipline; merely that philosophers can easily defer to scientists over those matters which science can satisfactorily answer, and that the OP's question mixes the two disciplines in a way unlikely to lead to a good answer. – Michael Dorfman Apr 24 '12 at 06:41
  • @MichaelDorfman. I think you're overestimating what philosophy can do. I can't think of how philosophy could tackle any question about time: it seems it could be analyzed psychologically (i.e. phenomenologically) or scientifically (i.e. physically). The trouble with philosophy is that it tries to do both and ends up doing neither. Here's an analogous situation: Hans Jonas thinks the question "what is a living being" to be well worth asking and puzzling about; however, a biologist like Andre Lwoff thinks the question to be a bad one. That is, in the field of biology such a question – Jon Apr 27 '12 at 19:40
  • is meaningless. But Jonas, or another philosopher, probably feels that the biologist is not asking the "deep" questions--when, in fact, the biologist is asking the meaningful questions and leaves the philosopher to philosophize about empty questions. Of course, philosophers don't think they're meaningless; yet, similar to "time," these questions may have psychological import to the philosopher without having any physical meaning. So, the importance of these sorts of questions is that they "feel" important--though they are not meaningful questions outside of "how they feel." – Jon Apr 27 '12 at 19:47
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    @Jon: I'm with Jonas-- I don't find "What is a living being?" to be an empty question, or a meaningless one, at all. Nor do I think that the problem of time can be reduced to either psychology or physics. There is a great philosophical literature on time, running from Aristotle to Heidegger, and if you don't think this literature is worth consulting, I'm wondering why you're evidently wasting your time on a Philosophy Q&A site. – Michael Dorfman Apr 27 '12 at 19:52
  • @MichaelDorfman. --Because Aristotle and Heidegger don't encompass all of philosophy! In fact, I wouldn't consider what Heidegger is doing philosophy at all (but that's just me). Why it is that people who agree with Jonas, Heidegger, et al. are so offended by those who don't? There are important philosophical questions: what is being, what is time, etc. are not some of them (but that's my opinion). There's a difference between an important question and a question that gets its significance from a misuse of language. Philosophy's aim should be to clarify misuses and abuses of language. – Jon Apr 27 '12 at 20:38
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    @Jon: I didn't say "Aristotle and Heidegger"-- I said, "a literature running from Aristotle to Heidegger" which encompasses a few thousand years of philosophers. I'm not at all offended by those who don't agree with Jonas or Heidegger; I am puzzled, however, by the reduction of philosophy to merely "clarifying misuses and abuses of language"; there's much more to it than that. – Michael Dorfman Apr 28 '12 at 11:15
  • Time is just perceived as linear; it exists, but all a once. Future, past, and present are all happening at once but the human mind can only comprehend time as happening moment after moment. This is why I believe in time travel: we could hop from moment to moment because instead of a moment in time being ahead of us or behind us, it is ON us. So we could just hop and land in the same spot at a hugely different time. –  Oct 09 '12 at 23:31
  • @MichaelDorfman: while the detailed development of relativity is best left to physicists, philosophers cannot have a robust idea of time without making reference to it, any more than a philosopher can have a robust conception of space without Euclid, colour without Newton, matter without Compton/Rutherford/Schrodinger, etc. Philosophy seems to me to be about formulating ideas to tackle those problems complicated enough to resist automatic solvability, or for which we lack foundational understanding; but it can't do this except to work from a corpus of premises, which may arise from science. – Niel de Beaudrap Oct 16 '12 at 17:26
  • While I think the question of "what is time?" is a very good one. But despite my previous comment above, I'm not sure what to make of this question. I think I could only summarize it to say "Not only do we not know what time is, we *really* don't know what time is!" The mysteries of special and general relativity are only a tangy twist to add to the fundamental mystery; they serve no role here except to remind us that something we take for granted is actually very poorly understood. I would ask: how can this question be distilled into a form which is partially answerable by anyone? – Niel de Beaudrap Oct 16 '12 at 17:36
  • @PHPGAE "It has been said that time is relative to gravity". It's not. Gravity is essencially an artificial concept; objects don't really "attract" other objects. Objects distor the space around them. There is no real attraction, its just that the "space grid" is curved. See this picture. Essencially, time and space must be understood as one as they are dependent from one another. Einstein's relativity theory merely expresses that connection and explains that that is why time is "relative" to the observer. – 0x6C38 Jun 01 '13 at 23:27
  • Per Minkowski, "spacetime" - see ch. 2 here: http://www.minkowskiinstitute.org/mip/MinkowskiFreemiumMIP2012.pdf – MmmHmm Oct 21 '16 at 18:28
  • i believe that Lee Smolin lives and works in Canada. dunno if that means he's a Canadian or not. – robert bristow-johnson Feb 13 '18 at 08:56
  • I would not say 1 & 3 are disjoint. It would be: The time is relative and is a measure of change, caused by forces. Therefore, forces (including gravity itself) are relative. This is quite intuitive. – rus9384 Jun 27 '18 at 15:33
  • Those are not really three definitions of time, those are properties of time. – Willtech Aug 25 '21 at 04:47