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If so, why? If not, what do you consider a complete definition of “formal logic”?

Julius Hamilton
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  • "adequately define" is doing a lot of heavy lifting here. What purpose is there to distinguishing between formal, and informal logics? I would say that if the demarcation is consistent, unambigous, and useful then it is sufficient. Though, I can't really think of a reason to want to define formal logic in such a way. I might say that formal refers to an axiomatic structuture whereas informal does not, but then I would just use axiomatic VS nonaxiomatic instead of formal V informal – Michael Carey Jan 14 '24 at 17:43
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    What, as opposed to just 'logic'? – J Kusin Jan 14 '24 at 22:09

3 Answers3

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John MacFarlane has written a whole PhD thesis on this topic which is available online here. It's a very well-known text which looks at the roots of the expression "formal logic" in Kant etc.

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As an introduction to the topic of formal logic see the following definition from Logic

Formal logic is the science of deductively valid inferences or logical truths.

Mathematicians do not have problems to work with this definition since more than 100 years. Why should there be any philosophical problems?

There are several questions on this platform which deal with formal logic, e.g., Is formal logic unsuitable for philosophical reasoning?

Because you did not further specify your question, it is not clear what your point is.

Jo Wehler
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Is it philosophically difficult to adequately define “formal logic”?

Philosophically define?! Isn't it good enough to just provide a definition in good English? I would hope so.

Mine is as follows:

Formal logic is the empirical science of logic.

To answer your question, as it turns out, yes, it is really hard. The history of formal logic seems to start with Aristotle... Ah, already we have a problem, because people produced texts which may be categorised as formal logic before Aristotle.

A crucial point about what Aristotle did with respect to how to define formal logic is that Aristotle didn't even try to explain why a perfect syllogism was perfect. Subsequently, logicians adopted the same perspective, presumably without even realising that they were. Imagine someone explaining that it is true that 1 + 1 = 2 and content to leave it at that! That could be called "formal addition", and, in a sense, it would be correct.

Allow me to borrow the definition quoted by Jo Wehler in his answer as it is indeed typical:

Formal logic is the science of deductively valid inferences or logical truths.

This is interesting but it has obvious flaws. What about invalid inferences? Surely, it is the job of formal logic to explain why an invalid inference is invalid.

And science? There is a clear distinction between Einstein's Theory of General Relativity, which is science but only one part of it, even if an essential one, and what Einstein actually did to produce it, which, presumably, is just as essential. Which is really science?

Let's agree that "science" is too broad a term to get anywhere, but, typically, in a science, people produce theories using the scientific method. Logic is obviously a very particular object and the scientific method has to be adapted to it, but there is no science without some scientific method adapted to its object. Or else, you expect to get correct results through sheer luck, or perhaps the power of divination, and this is not quite what we want to call science.

Before researchers seriously engage in science, there is usually a long period during which they just do something else, and this is what logicians have done for the last 2,500 years. They have often said interesting things, but they have also said absurd things. Just to mention one, Bertrand Russell's theory of descriptions which says that the sentence "The king of France is bald" is false if there is no king of France. How could that be a scientific theory?! A theory which says that a statement is false even though the thing of which it is said to be false doesn't even exist. Absurd. And more to the point, anti-scientific. When we say that a sentence is false, we mean that what the sentence says of the subject is false of the subject, and then how could that be possible when there is no subject?

And this is just one example.

So, if formal logic is a science, then what people do at the moment is not formal logic.

Formal logic is often thought of as something much like arithmetic. This is broadly the perspective of Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz and George Boole. A calculus. However, a calculus is not science. It may be the output of science, but only if there is the method. Leibniz and Boole worked more as mathematicians than scientists. They tried to produce a formal system without really trying to understand what logic was. The result of Boole initial impetus is that today the specialists of what is widely considered to be formal logic prefer to ignore, and even dismiss, any empirical evidence on human logic. Thus, so-called Propositional Logic says that the disjunction (α → β) ∨ (β → α) is true, even though it is empirical data that humans think of it as false. So, if so-called Propositional Logic is formal logic, then formal logic is not an empirical science. That is, it is just mathematics, and then better define it as such.

The alternative is to go back to the scientific method. This would require to conceive of a method adapted to its object, logic, which is arguably a difficult proposition. Formal logic, according to this perspective, would be an empirical science. It would try to produce not a mathematical theory, but an algorithmic model of what the human brain does. This model would just output the valid conclusion of whatever premises we would input. The proper science, then, would be just as much in the model as in the process to arrive at it.

Thus, if formal logic is the science of logic, it has to start with what empirical sciences do, which is observe what its object does. To be able to do that, you have to pay attention to the empirical data. For example, one empirical data is that the disjunction (α → β) ∨ (β → α) is false, not true.

So formal logic can only be the science which tries to understand how logic really works, and to achieve this, it has to understand why logical truths are true.

So, yes, formal logic is a science, but it is the science of logic, and then you have to define logic itself as something which is not formal logic, as is anyway apparent. To define logic itself, you have to understand what it is, and this requires a scientific investigation. So, you can only properly define formal logic as the science of logic which has to define its object. This is as should be. If we could define the object before the science is done, we wouldn't need the science. All we need for now is an ostensive definition of logic, which is possible because we all recognise logic when we see it, just as we recognise the moon when we see it. We know humans recognise logic because the logical truths identified by logicians are self-evident: for example, the modus ponens (α → β) ∧ α ⊢ β. Thus, logic is just the cognitive capacity which makes us capable of recognising that the modus ponens (α → β) ∧ α ⊢ β is true. The question now is, how exactly does it work? To answer this question, we need the science of logic, namely, formal logic.

Speakpigeon
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  • Of course the definition of inference deals with the property of valid and invalid inference rules; for an example see https://text.phil171.org/docs/reasoning/inferences/ - Can you condense the last section of your answer to a working definition of formal logic? – Jo Wehler Jan 14 '24 at 14:58
  • @JoWehler Sure: Formal logic is the empirical science of logic. I updated my answer accordingly. – Speakpigeon Jan 15 '24 at 14:26
  • I stumble at the attribute "empirical" in your definition of formal logic. I consider formal logic a structural science; it investigates different axiomatized calculi of logic. – Jo Wehler Jan 15 '24 at 15:42
  • @JoWehler "it investigates different axiomatized calculi of logic." This would make it just mathematics, and it is not. Logic is not arbitrary, contrary to what mathematicians may say. Logic is what it is, and any calculus purported to be a calculus of logic should be meant as emulating logical inferences as we understand them, and so the logician as to take all the empirical data that we have about how logic works into account. – Speakpigeon Jan 16 '24 at 08:11
  • It seems that for you there is only one correct logic, and this one can be discovered. As you indicate this position is not shared by all logicians. Could you please give some arguments or references which support your view. – Jo Wehler Jan 16 '24 at 08:26
  • @JoWehler Our intuition since always. The word logic has always been in the singular. What is logic? Not: What are logics? The plural is a recent invention of mathematicians who couldn't agree which each other which was the correct calculus of logic. You say yourself: "formal logic ... investigates different axiomatized calculi of logic**" Logic in the singular. Plus, (1) (α → β) ∧ α ⊢ β; (2) (α → β) ∧ ¬β ⊢ ¬α; (3) (α → β) ∧ (β → δ) ⊢ α → δ; (4) α → β ⊢ ¬β → ¬α; (5) (α ∧ β) → δ ⊢ α → (β → δ); (6) α → (β → δ) ⊢ β → (α → δ); (7) α ∧ ¬β ⊢ ¬(α → β). Plus, Aristotle's syllogisms. – Speakpigeon Jan 16 '24 at 16:07
  • What about agreeing that we disagree? – Jo Wehler Jan 16 '24 at 21:37
  • @JoWehler Well, sure, but you only repeat what you have read in the academic literature. There is no equivalence between you and me in this respect. – Speakpigeon Jan 17 '24 at 10:29
  • @Speakpigeon out of curiosity, how would you derive ⊢α→α or ⊢α∨¬α from those axioms you listed? – PW_246 Jan 20 '24 at 21:14
  • @PW_246 "how would you derive ⊢α→α or ⊢α∨¬α from those axioms you listed?" I'm quite sure you couldn't explain why me or anyone should be able to do that. I can only suspect that you don't understand my reply to Jo Wehler and that you confuse formal logic as a branch of mathematics. – Speakpigeon Jan 21 '24 at 11:08
  • @speakpigeon You made it seem like that random jumble of principles is your view of logic. If it is, then I don’t see how you could prove much of anything interesting. – PW_246 Jan 21 '24 at 15:53
  • @PW_246 "random jumble of principles is your view of logic" So I was right. You didn't understand. The expressions I listed are logical truths identified by the Aristotelian tradition. I doubt anyone could seriously dispute that any of them is true. If we all agree that seven random logical expressions are true, it must be because we all have the same logic, and then there is just one logic, and the idea that mathematicians can invent arbitrary logics is false. – Speakpigeon Jan 22 '24 at 15:48
  • @Speakpigeon you didn’t make that clear at all. Either way, I do agree with those (and more) for the material conditional, but I disagree with 5 and 6 for strict implications. For example, whenever you hit a home run and someone is on base, then you get more than one RBI, but that doesn’t mean that whenever you hit a home run, then whenever someone is on base, you get more than one RBI. You could hit a home run with no one on base, and then the next batter gets a single; the next batter being on base doesn’t guarantee that you got more than one RBI. – PW_246 Jan 22 '24 at 18:39
  • @PW_246 "for the material conditional . . . for strict implications" Sorry, that doesn't mean anything to me. There is just one implication, and it is neither the material implication nor the strict implication. Logical truths (5) and (6) are very intuitive in all contexts and also routine in mathematics, so if (5) and (6) don't work with your "strict implication", then they are counterexamples falsifying it. - 2. "whenever you hit a home run" I don't play baseball, but if it didn't agree with (5) and (6), then it would be illogical, so I suspect you misunderstand the rules. – Speakpigeon Jan 23 '24 at 15:17
  • @Speakpigeon there has to be at least two implications per your view, since you use the syntactic consequence relation. Also, do yourself a favor and re-read my example even if you never played baseball. – PW_246 Jan 23 '24 at 17:52
  • @PW_246 "* there has to be at least two implications per your view, since you use the syntactic consequence relation.*" I have not the slightest idea what you mean here. I can guarantee you that we only need one implication; the one which exists. – Speakpigeon Jan 23 '24 at 17:57
  • @Speakpigeon ‘⊢’ – PW_246 Jan 23 '24 at 18:54
  • @PW_246 ‘⊢’ I use A ⊢ B to mean the same as A → B, i.e., the implication. I use ⊢ for the main implication, which allows for less parentheses. So (A → B) ∧ A ⊢ B just means ((A → B) ∧ A) → B but has two parentheses less and is much more legible. I use another symbol, namely ⊧, for inference, which is what you presumably inappropriately call "syntactic consequence relation", for the only consequence relation is... the implication. Inference is not a relation, it is an act, an action, a performance, which is why it is valid or not, unlike the implication, which is true or false. – Speakpigeon Jan 24 '24 at 10:04
  • ‘⊧’ is semantic consequence and the other is syntactic consequence. You need a syntax and a semantics for logic of any kind. You’d be wise to open your mind to formal logic as a tool for formalizing and studying existing reasoning patterns, many of which are appropriate only for specific situations. Specifically, I think you’d do well to look into Relevance Logic since it seems to most closely capture your intuitions for implication. – PW_246 Jan 24 '24 at 13:04
  • @PW_246 "‘⊧’ is semantic consequence" Not to me. - 2. "You need a syntax and a semantics for logic of any kind." There is only one kind. Logic is a cognitive capacity, not a formal system. - 3. "open your mind to formal logic" I don't think you know what you are talking about. 4. "many of which are appropriate only for specific situations." There is just one logic and it applies to all situations. - 5. "into Relevance Logic since it seems to most closely capture your intuitions for implication" Relevance logicians cannot even say what relevance might be. – Speakpigeon Jan 24 '24 at 17:36
  • @Speakpigeon Have it your way. Just know that the Deduction Theorem follows from your rule set, the fact that you use the turnstile as an abbreviation for implication, and the rule A&B⊢A. You’ve objected to proofs that use the Deduction Theorem in the past, so you owe it to yourself to look into it and see why your rules/axioms suffice for it. – PW_246 Jan 24 '24 at 20:54
  • Also, note that if you add A↔¬¬A and A→(A∧A), your system is sufficient for the →,¬ portion of Classical Logic. Your system is sufficient to prove Explosion from just A↔¬¬A and the rest of your rules/axioms. – PW_246 Jan 25 '24 at 05:53
  • @PW_246 "if you add A↔¬¬A and A→(A∧A)" I don't need to postulate those since both are perhaps even more self-evident than (A → B) ∧ A ⊢ B. - 2. "your system is sufficient for the →,¬ portion of Classical Logic" I don't use Classical Logic because it is crap. 3. "Your system is sufficient to prove Explosion from just A↔¬¬A" Prove? Certainly not logically. The Principle of Explosion is absurd, and you cannot prove logically that something absurd is true. 4. "the rest of your rules/axioms." They are neither rules nor axioms. They are self-evident logical truths, which was my point. – Speakpigeon Jan 25 '24 at 10:32
  • @Speakpigeon You’re wrong. You unwittingly endorse either Classical Logic or contradictions.

    I’ll just sketch a proof of Explosion here:

    1. (P&~Q)→P 2. P→(~Q→P) 3. (~Q→P)→(~P→~~Q). 4. P→(~P→~~Q) 5. P→(~P→Q) 6. (P&~P)→Q
    – PW_246 Jan 25 '24 at 16:26
  • @PW_246 "You . . . endorse either Classical Logic or contradictions." No. I endorse nothing. I don't need to. I only need to be logical. You should try it. - 2. "I’ll just sketch a proof of Explosion here" Any proof of the PoE can only be illogical. - 3. We better stop here. You remind me that humans prefer to believe in dogmas rather than work hard to understand how reality really works. – Speakpigeon Jan 25 '24 at 17:33
  • I’m saying that Modus Ponens, Substitution, and your “self-evident manifest logic of human reason” is just Classical Propositional Logic. Which one are you denying? – PW_246 Jan 25 '24 at 17:40
  • @PW_246 I'm denying that Classical Logic is logic. I already made that clear. - 2. "your “self-evident manifest logic of human reason”" Stop the silly rhetoric. I didn't invent the logical expressions I just listed. All logicians since always have or would have agreed that there are self-evident. – Speakpigeon Jan 26 '24 at 10:25