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As far as I know about solipsism is that the solipsist I guess would be me, and I am the only mind that exists and everything I perceive from my senses and the experience of the world is solely a product of my mind.

The subject is me, and the object I perceive,'The World' is a product of that subject.

Is solipsism therefore a declaration of the 'individual' to themselves, that there is no subject and no object because you cannot differentiate between the two?

What then would that 'individual' declare their experience to be if there is no subject or object?

8Mad0Manc8
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  • @8Ma0Manc8 I expect that a solipsist considers everything as the content of his consciousness. He will not employ a subject-object splitting. – Jo Wehler Dec 29 '23 at 18:56
  • @JoWehler Yes, and that consciousness is not formed on its own. Hence while ownership is localised in the "I" mode, the more general Dasein is left open "to potentially revolutionary reconfigurations of our understanding of the self" (W. Blattner, 2013) – Chris Degnen Dec 29 '23 at 19:28
  • @JoWehler That would appear to be the default position. I know my question is awkward and there has been no answer as yet but how do solipsist account for age and mental development. A solipsist mind must have been fully developed since inception else its self developed and that does not make sense, how can itself develop itself into something more than itself if its only experiencing itself? – 8Mad0Manc8 Dec 29 '23 at 20:43
  • @8Mad0Manc8 I do not feel competent to argue for solipsism or to give any suppport to a solipsist position. Concerning the issue I recommend the entry on solipsism https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Solipsism – Jo Wehler Dec 29 '23 at 21:25

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