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Epiphenomenalism is the view that mental events are caused by physical events in the brain, but have no effects upon any physical events.

Many of the challenges to this view revolve around how it reduces us to nothing more than machines and goes against our experience of free will.

But do we actually experience free will? Actions come from decisions which are thoughts. But when do we choose our thoughts? It is not as if there is a basket of thoughts among which we pick one out of. Thoughts, instead, seem to pop out of nowhere as many careful meditators have claimed. Sam Harris argues that the entire concept is incoherent.

Some argue that free will is a fundamental component of experience. But if it was a fundamental component of experience, how could it even be doubted? We may not be able to doubt that we experience, but there is nothing preventing us from doubting that we experience free will. Lastly, it is not hard to imagine conscious experience without free will.

So if free will is not experienced, can this be evidence for epiphenomenalism?

  • Related reading (not an answer): https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/epiphenomenalism/ – Galen Sep 06 '23 at 04:20
  • Charles Lutwidge Dodgson ... go on. – Agent Smith Sep 06 '23 at 06:30
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    Why can't you doubt your experience? Optical illusions for example? You can doubt anything whether that is a healthy attitude is a different question. – haxor789 Sep 06 '23 at 08:18
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    An optical illusion isn’t you doubting that you experience. It can result in you doubting what the experience may be referring to. You can’t actually doubt that you are experiencing. Doubt itself is a form of experience. –  Sep 06 '23 at 20:54
  • @thinkingman I originally typed out a multi (more than one but only barely) paragraph response to this, before realising it was quite so terrible ... – BeB00 Sep 07 '23 at 09:34
  • @thinkingman I assume it must (?) be obvious that a) experience is always indiidual, but at the same time there are even individual concepcts upon which the whole evolves. I notice only now that there is no b _ may academia decide my punishment, and no other. – BeB00 Sep 07 '23 at 09:37
  • It is not as if there is a basket of thoughts among which we pick one out of. Actually, it's exactly like this. I am aware of choosing thoughts. – Stewart Sep 07 '23 at 22:22
  • @Stewart I'd love to hear more details about that. What's your experience with "choosing thoughts"? How do you choose from thoughts you haven't thunk yet? Once you've thunk them, they've already been chosen by… whom? You may choose among a number of actions that came to mind (in the form of thoughts), but you can't choose the thoughts that come to mind, can you? And how are you choosing among the thoughts that came to mind? Where does the deciding thought that makes the choice come from? – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 22:41
  • @deceze Happy to have this conversation with you. What channel / forum / messaging should we use? (I feel the conversation could become extended beyond the comments section here) – Stewart Sep 08 '23 at 09:48
  • @deceze Meanwhile, two comments by way of a short (inadequate) answer: 1 - Everything is on a gradient. There is no digital boolean "have choice" vs "don't have choice". You can increase powers of choice (or decrease) in areas of life, as you become more or less aware in an area. 2 - These questions are typical of "the hard problem." Solving them requires a paradigm jump. From "the universe creates thoughts" to "thoughts create the universe". In making that jump, everything solves and makes sense. In line with my point 1 above, the "jump" is made on a gradient. – Stewart Sep 08 '23 at 09:49
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    @Stewart I've grappled with that paradigm jump before; not entirely sure anymore how it turned out or how it would solve this situation, since it's been a while. But yeah, I'm vaguely familiar with that line of reasoning. Feel free to email me at my domain you find in my profile. :) – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 10:58

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A better argument against epiphenomenalism is that the human-influenced world becomes much harder to explain without free will. For instance, why would my fingers randomly type out this defense of free will if free will doesn't actually exist? It's too oddly specific of a pattern to be created randomly, so any satisfying argument for epiphenomenalism would have to explain not only it, but all the other oddly specific patterns of behavior my body experiences, and the way those cohere (for instance, driving a car, and stopping at the red lights, or eating at a restaurant, but ordering gluten-free rolls).

The concept that I'm a freely willed agent creating these words is simpler than any explanation that would somehow fake agency. And any such explanation would likely require a willed agent somewhere along the line.

For instance, if I watch a movie, I can get caught up enough in it that I think I'm the main character. I experience his choices as if I were actively making them, but in fact, I'm merely watching them. That is an epiphenomenon. However, that movie still required a writer, a director and an actor to intentionally bring it out about. It did not form itself randomly.

Chris Sunami
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    “For instance, why would my fingers randomly type out this defense of consciousness if consciousness doesn't actually exist”. Epiphenomenalism doesn’t state that consciousness doesn’t exist. The rest of your argument amounts to “I can’t imagine consciousness without free will. Therefore consciousness requires free will.” That’s an argument from incredulity. –  Sep 06 '23 at 19:56
  • @thinkingman I have edited the answer to remove the misleading references to consciousness. – Chris Sunami Sep 06 '23 at 20:29
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    By this logic the fact that apples fall from trees is evidence that the Earth has free will. – slondr Sep 07 '23 at 01:53
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    If you mean libertarian free will, then that seems to be the much harder (poorly-defined/incoherent) explanation. Because "the neurons in your brain fire so as to send signals to your fingers to move (and those neurons firing is ultimately a result of your biology and environment)" is a far more concrete and evidence-based explanation than an appeal to some vague concept of "free will" with no insight into the mechanisms involved, and no insight into how that interacts with the mechanisms we know influences it. – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 09:59
  • @NotThatGuy & slondr: I've edited my answer, since you both seemed to miss that the the difficult thing to explain is not the mechanism of my behaviors but rather their pattern. It's as though you're explaining a book as ink on a page, and missing the fact that the words printed in it have a meaning. – Chris Sunami Sep 07 '23 at 11:51
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    @ChrisSunami I didn't miss anything. There are billions of years of processes involved in the explanation of why your fingers typed this answer, which is a bit much to detail in a comment. You mentioned "randomly" twice, yet only some of those processes are random. Those processes have independent supporting evidence. Your "simpler" explanation is to not explain anything at all, and to either reject the existence of those billions of years of processes, or to try to insert free will at some undefined point inside that, or to try to fit free will around that somehow. – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 12:01
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    "if I watch a movie, I can get caught up enough in it that I think I'm the main character. I experience his choices as if I were actively making them, but in fact, I'm merely watching them" - this is a pretty good rebuttal of your own argument, in that you have the illusion of free will, yet the choices you experience making have in fact been fully determined and you're incapable of deciding something other than what will happen (much like in reality). How the movie came about is irrelevant to whether you can have the illusion of having choice when you don't. – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 12:08
  • @NotThatGuy - It's hard for me to not feel sorry for you, forced to watch passively as your body helplessly fires off response-after-response to these arguments. – Chris Sunami Sep 07 '23 at 12:10
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    @ChrisSunami It's hard for me to not feel sorry for you, given that you posted an answer to disagree with something, despite you apparently not understanding what you're disagreeing with on even an elementary level, and you just instead resort to attacking strawman upon strawman, and you try to use personal attacks instead of logical reasoning in response to criticism. – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 12:15
  • @NotThatGuy "Hard"? No, impossible, according to your framework. It may have seemed like I was making a gratuitous attack, but I was actually illustrating a point. Your body acts in intentional ways. And the time and effort you're putting into these responses is meaningless from your point of view, since you're just a passive observer of them, and since it's impossible that they could change my mind, since my own responses are not willed. // My responses are consonant with my beliefs, but given your beliefs, it doesn't make sense for you to even respond in the first place. – Chris Sunami Sep 07 '23 at 12:20
  • @ChrisSunami "you're just a passive observer" + "it's impossible that they could change my mind" - both false, and they represent a complete and total misunderstanding of the topic at hand on your part. I'd suggest you spend at least a minimal amount of time learning about and trying to understand something before trying to refute it, because otherwise you just make yourself look silly, like you're doing here. Also, here's a tip for constructive discourse: rather than telling people what they believe, I'd suggest asking them instead. Then you're less likely to be wrong, if nothing else. – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 12:28
  • @NotThatGuy There's nothing--other than a billion years of evolution and a bunch of processes too complex to contain in these simple comments--stopping you from posting your own answer, or from voting on mine. – Chris Sunami Sep 07 '23 at 12:33
  • @ChrisSunami I may or may not post an answer. I may or may not vote on yours. I also may or may not have an ice cream, and I may or may not play a video game, and I also may or may not watch a movie. None of that, however, has any bearing whatsoever on the validity of what I said (beyond those being choices... which you'll probably strawman again). – NotThatGuy Sep 07 '23 at 12:38
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    ”since it's impossible that they could change my mind, since my own responses are not willed” - Au contraire. You’re a product of billions of years of evolution, arguably of everything that’s happened since the Big Bang and whatever came before it. You’re constantly shaped by your surroundings. These very words may very well lead you to change your mind. Lead you to change your mind helplessly. Because you can’t decide to change your mind, it just changes. Probably not today. But maybe in a few years. And these very words may have been the seeds of this change. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 20:12
  • @deceze - I guess you guys really can't help yourselves... – Chris Sunami Sep 07 '23 at 20:52
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Actions come from decisions which are thoughts

Not necessarily. There are a ton of actions that do not come from conscious thought at all. Like currently I'm breathing without sparing a thought about breathing in and out and I still do it. Also I'm typing and while I think about the ideas, concepts, sentences and words, I spare not a single conscious thought on which keys I should hit on the keyboard, in fact I'm actually typing faster than the time that my mind would take to go through the different letters in those words. I can't even follow the movement of the fingers consciously unless I slow it down significantly. I'm certainly not consciously supervising these processes and with respect to breathing might not even have consciously set them in motion to begin with. It is not my "will" that I perform the bodily functions that keep my body alive like having my heart beat and so on.

I do not object to that and don't interfere with it (most of the time) but those are actions that "I" (the entity comprising body and mind) perform, but that are all "body" and not "mind", it's not "me", the conscious agent supervising the body to write these lines.

The process of doing so might even be controlled by the "brain" though not the "mind", so just because "brain" and "mind" are assumed to occupy the same physical space they do not necessarily refer synonymously to the same concept.

That being said, just because there are lots of actions that I do not perform consciously, there are also a lot of actions that I do perform consciously, like "writing" these lines (not the mechanical, but the thought process).

But when do we choose our thoughts?

Similar problem. Yes and no. There are lots of thoughts that you don't chose, because your body is constantly "perceiving" but your mind isn't constantly "listening" to that, so a lot of thoughts are subroutines coming to the surface of the consciousness, because they've reached a threshold of importance to become "emotions" about which we then develop "thoughts". So we don't choose them our bodies chose them for us. That being said just because you can close your eyes and lets thoughts pop up and fade into obscurity, you still have the ability to hold on to a thought, to concentrate upon it, to query your brain for more perception and data about it, to investigate it's connections, reasons and implications. So just because not every thought is conscious again doesn't mean that none is. And despite the fact that our thoughts are limited by our experiences, our thoughts are still quite free to mix and match everything that we've stored in memory. So that we can technically even imagine things vividly that do not exist and even cannot exist. Like do do you have a problem conceiving thoughts of aliens, monsters, gods, teleportation, time travel and so on? Probably not, have you ever seen them in real life? Probably not. But it's not difficult to combine idk a human or animal shape with the constraints of a horror movie, meaning that it should look scary, so idk sharp and metallic (invokes feelings of getting hurt easily by it)? blood red (invokes feelings of being hurt already or being about to as the threat is still present)? Gooey (also not pleasant and might stick and cause illnesses)? Maybe moldy in color and texture (natural aversion because of rotten food)? Dark (so that you can't make out the details and don't know what's hidden)? Or bright (so that you can't see anything)? Or some Cherenkov effect (that looks both marvelous and scary when you think of it's origin)?

So even if we are no gods that could think of a thing that we can't think about, there's still a lot of freedom and possibility in our thoughts and we can to a degree focus our attention or listen to the static.

Some argue that free will is a fundamental component of experience.

Well yes, experience is conscious experience, you can perceive things subconsciously, but you can't experience them subconsciously otherwise the memory would just a a vague indistinct feeling that you can't really comprehend consciously.

But if it was a fundamental component of experience, how could it even be doubted? [...] We may not be able to doubt that we experience,

You can doubt a lot of things. Like optical illusions and so on can make you doubt your perception and experience, or eating and suddenly feeling less angry might make you doubt your emotion of anger and might make you contemplate where it's coming from rather than directly reacting to it.

But I'm not aware of a way to switch off your mind without switching it off completely. You know you can knock your mind out, with physical force or drugs so that you're in a state of unconsciousness but then "you" don't exist, your body is just vegetating, but as long as you exist you are aware of your existence, right? Like you might not be aware of your body but you're nonetheless aware of your mind. And you can't really step outside of your mind. So can you really question your "self"?

Now the problem is that there is a connection between "me", everything occupying the physical space of my body, "me" the conscious mind that does the thinking, "me" the body that does the action and part of the thoughts and stores the memory, including the brain that is part of the body yet responsible for the technicalities of the mind/body interface and likely host to the mind, which is again me, which is host to an internal simulating unit and a will (to interact with the surrounding world) and if they are all interacting based on physical principles then this should be a human machine that connected inputs to outputs, meaning there is no place for a "me" in that picture, yet I am as certain as nothing else on earth that "I" do posses the ability to both act internally "thinking" and "externally" relatively free, that is constraint by the body, by the laws of nature, by my own experiences, but not in a predetermined way or one where things could only go one way, so for all intents and purposes yes, I would say that I do experience free will. But the thing is if that isn't it and things are predetermined than I could feel differently anyway, but this feeling would be the result of my environment, so for practical purposes it doesn't actually matter.

haxor789
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  • 99.9% of the philosophers who developed a substantial concept of action do not count autonomous activities as actions. In fact, most of them consider intent to be essential for action. – Philip Klöcking Sep 08 '23 at 07:05
  • @PhilipKlöcking Makes sense, however are these "actions" that I list autonomous activities just because I do not directly will them? The thing is I could make the decision to interfere with them. For example I can stop breathing (at least for a while). So these are different from mere reflexes, they do happen on their own and I don't pay attention to them right now, but I still want them to happen. So can it be possible to act by willful inaction? Like as soon as you become aware of a trolley problem you're making a decision regardless of whether you will your body to do anything. – haxor789 Sep 08 '23 at 13:23
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Absolutely free will is experienced. Two psychological manifestations of free will are cognitive dissonance and indecision. The first occurs when I am thinking two contradictory things and have to take responsibility for it. The more general experience, that of indecision, is the ultimate burden of free will. If I can choose, then I have to have a basis to choose. Blonde or brunette? Chocolate or vanilla? Reading philosophy or playing a first-person shooter? For a truly advanced mind, such paralysis by analysis may lead to an existential crisis. Such freedom of will may ultimately lead to embracing absurdism: after all, I'm free to think whatever I want as long I can choose. I should choose by thinking my way through it. I can't help but constantly thinking through it. I can't help but constantly choose anew. My free will is thus a prison.

J D
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  • Comments have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on [meta], or in [chat]. Comments continuing discussion may be removed. – Geoffrey Thomas Sep 08 '23 at 09:09
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I think you are very much coming at this from the Harris camp. And yes, he is very much arguing against the existence of free will. And yes, I would say that epiphenomenalism is simply Harris' stance by another name. I don't know whether he's ever used that term or would want to be associated with it, but as an outside observer, the two positions seem to go together quite well.

I think this is pretty much all your question is really, but let me add to this a bit more from my perspective. The free will divide—which is also very apparent in the answers here—is mostly a difference of what angle you look at the problem from, I believe.

If you look at it from "inside the box", then you do exhibit "free will" in the sense that you as a biological entity have a full range of possibilities to choose from at any given time. That is as opposed to a severely constrained entity which may be forced to make certain decisions against its instinct or better knowledge. In this sense, there are enough humans on this planet which do not have "free will", as they're very constrained by circumstances.

You could soften this definition a bit more to define "free will" as merely wanting to make certain decisions, even if you cannot carry them out because of external constraints. In this sense, the most constrained people out there may be the most free-willed of all of us, when they constantly experience the tension between what they want but can't have. I on the other hand could hop on a train right now to the airport and fly to the other side of the world on a whim. Is that "free will"? Or merely thoughtlessly acting on random impulses? Is it more free-willed to resist the urge to do this, because that is the wiser decision?

That is where the different angle comes in: looking at it from "outside the box", these decision making processes are going on inside your head somewhere. Harris and other meditators argue that if you really pay attention to that process, you truly have no idea who is coming up with these questions and who's weighing them and who makes the final decision. It just… happens. When you're thirsty, do you weigh the pros and cons of drinking a cup of water? No, you just act. That's a very innate response, almost a reflex. It's one of the many ingrained behaviours we have which are the reason we're still around today, as opposed to having died off as a species long ago.

Our brains make a lot more complex decisions than this all the time. They're complex enough that given strong enough reasons/neural connections/input, they can even override such innate behaviour as eating and drinking. You can voluntarily starve yourself to death. But only very few people in extreme circumstances ever form these extreme overriding connections that would cause that behaviour. Is that an example of free will? Or just of something having arguably gone haywire in the brain? People throwing themselves off of buildings aren't usually viewed as doing so as an act of free will; rather some mental illness is typically being ascribed to them.

Which is all a long winded way of saying: it's really hard to pin down what supposedly is or isn't "free will" in the first place, so the arguments against free will existing at all are there in my opinion. However, from "inside the box", "free will" is a useful shorthand to explain certain behaviour, which "outside the box" doesn't in fact exist. The divide of opinion on the matter is IMO either a difference of definition, or a lack of having glimpsed "outside the box".

deceze
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  • "... if you really pay attention to that process, you truly have no idea who is coming up with these questions and who's weighing them and who makes the final decision. It just… happens." Introspection often creates biases. In this particular case, when you are trying to pay attention to your own decision making process, the part of you who is paying attention is not the part of you who is deciding. So the observing part of you will lack a sense of deciding (will not feel like it is deciding), since it is not in fact deciding but observing the part of you that is deciding. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 10:25
  • That is an interesting perspective. But then, the part of me that is consciously focusing its attention, the "me" that is observing, my conscience experience, apparently isn't the one making the decision. The decision is made by some part of "me" which "I" am not focussing on at the moment. So… it's not my "free will" making any decision, the decision is being made without my doing by some part of "me". – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 10:48
  • It's the "free will" of that part of you making decision A. That part of you paying attention has made its own decision, decision B, which is to pay attention to how decision A is made. But it has not paid attention to its own decision B. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 11:01
  • Then it seems to come down to a discrepancy of the term "free will". I would think that only the conscious part of "me" could make "free willed decisions", if anything. If some part of "me" can make decisions without me being consciously aware of it or consciously doing it, then it is an automated process in some sense or another which I'm free to consciously focus on or not. That's "inside the box" free-will to me. – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 11:08
  • Personally, I don't like the term "free will", find it ambiguous (other than in legal language where it clearly means "by one's own desire or decision, unforced by others"). In philosophy, I prefer the term "free choice" or even better, "agency". But that's semantics. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 11:49
  • Yes, in legal terms, "free will" has a specific and important meaning. It means "this individual has shown that they can act in ways dangerous to other people, in unpredictable and unprompted ways, so it is better to keep them away from the rest of society." Whether that individual actually had a choice in the matter or was merely predestined to act this way is irrelevant in this context. But then, who or what has a "free choice" or "agency"? Apparently it's not my aware consciousness. And whatever the other part(s) of "me" decide may be predetermined. So… ‍♂️ – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 11:55
  • To use your own language, when you decide to look at your own decision making from "outside the box", you will naturally feel estranged or alienated from the part of you still inside the box. You will be conscious of the guy inside the box alright, but you will be under the illusion that you are not him, precisely because you are trying to look at him from the outside. Your sense of alienation with your own decision making is purely a result of your decision to look at it from "outside the box". In doing so you decided to alienate yourself from your own decision making. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 12:03
  • No, that is not quite my position. You can only ever be "inside your box" by necessity. By "outside the box", I mean when looking at another supposedly intelligent being. I have no idea whether you are conscious or not, or just ChatGPT. I'll give you the benefit of the doubt, but I can't be sure. Ultimately I'm just seeing the results of your supposed decision process. — The "alienation" can be observed inside your box. That may require familiarity with meditation and/or more of Harris' line of argumentation though. – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 12:08
  • BTW, I'm afraid this inside/outside box thing is getting incongruent by debating it in too much detail. Let's not focus on these terms too much. It's an insufficient linguistic attempt to describe the phenomenon. Again, whether you understand what I mean and whether we're actually talking about the same thing may depend on you having experienced it and/or your familiarity with the arguments put forth by mediation practitioners. – deceze Sep 08 '23 at 12:12
  • All I have been addressing so far is this passage: "Harris and other meditators argue that if you really pay attention to that process, you truly have no idea who is coming up with these questions and who's weighing them and who makes the final decision. It just… happens." To me that is easily explained, because observing oneself (in imagination) necessarily creates a (imaginary) distance with oneself. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 12:22
  • If I were to address any other point you want me to, it would need to be in the chat. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 12:23
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"Epiphenomenalism is the view that mental events are caused by physical events in the brain, but have no effects upon any physical events."

Suppose my mental events include figuring out how to checkmate a chess opponent and then I carry out this plan successfully. As a result I win a chess tournament and use my prize money to vacation on a Caribbean isle, where I meet my future wife, with whom I eventually have a child who grows up to be a famous artist who sculptures what soon becomes a famous statue.

Wouldn't that quite obviously show mental events affecting physical events?

Daniel Asimov
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    It shows that biological processes in your brain—which you have subjectively observed as experience— have caused your hands to move chess pieces in a way that caused you to win the match. For any spectator, you may have just been a mechanical turk. Even assuming that you were conscious during the process, was your consciousness actually the originator of those plans and hand movements, or was it merely along for the ride, observing what the neural connections in your brain did given the input they received? – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 04:58
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Epiphenomenalism means that mental events don't exist at all. If they don't have any effect upon any physical events, they cannot be observed, there is nothing to experience. Only physical events can be observed and experienced. All mental events, including observation and experiencing, are just responses to physical events

In reality, mental events do exist, they do have an observable effect on people's behaviour.

You have left free will undefined. I am assuming here that by "free will" you mean the ability to choose actions.

We can observe free will (by this definition) in action. Choices are made and their observable consequences can be experienced, suffered or enjoyed.

This does not necessarily mean that we actually make our choices ourselves. It is still possible that our free will is an illusion, a false experience. However, this doesn't remove free will totally, choices are still made with observable consequences. Someone must be able to make them anyway and project this illusion into our minds. A highly improbable scenario, as we have no evidence at all for the existence of such mind-controlling beings.

Pertti Ruismäki
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    You are simply incorrect here. For starter’s, epiphenomenalism does not mean that mental events do not exist. Secondly, “observation” itself is a mental event. –  Sep 06 '23 at 04:31
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    How can you say that something exists, if that something does not have any observable physical effects? All abstract ideas exist only as their physical manifestations. – Pertti Ruismäki Sep 06 '23 at 07:17
  • @PerttiRuismäki Plato said incommensurable lengths can’t be observed physically but that doesn’t stop them existing. Why should it? We and our physical instruments are limited. – J Kusin Sep 06 '23 at 07:30
  • @JKusin If something is both unobservable and causes no observable effects, how can you rationally argue that it exists? – Michael W. Sep 06 '23 at 20:31
  • @MichaelW. No physically observable effects to humans does not necessarily mean something doesn’t exist. A simple example, we will never measure that something is exactly 2.00… units long but why should that rule out such a length existing? It maybe have the same measurable effect as something 2.00..01 units long. – J Kusin Sep 06 '23 at 20:44
  • @JKusin You seem to think that "we have not observed this" and "we cannot observe this" are the same statement. They are not. – Michael W. Sep 06 '23 at 20:47
  • @michaelw. There’s a more powerful example than my simple one, like Plato’s. We will never measure two lengths and think they are actually incommensurable regardless of precision/ability. The unavoidable imprecision in measuring any lengths is where we posit first their disagreements in common unit length arise from, should disagreement occur. If physically incommensurable -> imprecision. Not actually incommensurable. It’s viciously circular. It’s a similar argument but it better leverages the limits of measurement against itself. – J Kusin Sep 06 '23 at 21:06
  • @JKusin Anything made of matter is observable. Plato's ignorance on that topic doesn't make his argument any sounder. And, again, observed and observable are different. All lengths are observable, even if not observed. – Michael W. Sep 06 '23 at 21:10
  • @MichaelW. we can observe the inside of black holes or outside our lightcone? I think not. We can’t measure beyond the Planck length either. Measuring smaller scales requires more energy, and those scales require so much it creates a black hole. More energy-> larger black hole. – J Kusin Sep 06 '23 at 21:16
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    "Someone must be able to make them anyway and project this illusion into our minds." — What you observe in your mind is merely the result of the decisions having been made "mechanically" by your brain. There doesn't need to be a 3rd entity with free will. That's the argument. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 01:58
  • @deceze Decisions cannot be made "mechanically". No mechanism can evaluate options and select the most preferable option that serves the needs, plans and purposes of the decider. Only conscious minds can make decisions. – Pertti Ruismäki Sep 07 '23 at 03:50
  • @Pertti Modern "AI" can produce output which appears as though created by a sentience, yet is purely "mechanical" statistical connections and weights. I don't see a reason which biology wouldn't be able to produce similar mechanisms. Each cell in our bodies has been "placed" where it is with the functions it does as if by design; yet we now understand that it's fairly simple (albeit extremely complex) processes. The behaviour of very simple organisms can already be basically explained through "mechanics". What we do is just… more complex. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 04:11
  • @deceze No machine can ever make decisions. Machines have no needs or desires, no values, no plans, no imagination, no instincts, no reason whatsoever to choose one way over another. – Pertti Ruismäki Sep 07 '23 at 04:38
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    @Pertti What exactly is a "decision"? Evolutionarily we're all just here because we have adopted behaviours which have caused us to stay alive; as opposed to all the organisms which have failed to do so. Simply, given two choices, the organism tends towards one choice over another. Given a cliff, the organism that tends towards stopping survived, as opposed to the organism that tended towards walking right off it. My choosing salami pizza over pineapple is just the same kind of tendency towards one option, due to the myriad of weights affecting neuronal connections in my brain. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 04:44
  • … I'm not really deciding that I want salami, I tend towards selecting salami. Could I say why I've made that "decision"? No. Because I like the taste of salami. Okay, but why do I like the taste of salami? I didn't decide one day that I like the taste of salami. I just do. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 04:46
  • @deceze A decision is a deliberate selection of a course of action. You don't decide that you want salami. You only decide what you will do to get some salami. – Pertti Ruismäki Sep 07 '23 at 06:27
  • @Pertti That is incongruent with your previous statement about machines having no desire or reason to choose one way over another. Once you have a goal and several possible ways to get there, the path to get there can be selected entirely algorithmically. The supposedly free-willed decision doesn't concern the how, it concerns the what. It's the "decision" to get some salami now, as opposed to getting pineapple, or nothing at all. Once I've decided that, how I get it is fairly trivial and can largely be automated. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 06:33
  • @deceze Machines have no goals to achieve and they cannot come up with viable options to achieve them and they have no criteria for selecting the most preferable one. You could simulate those with an algorithm, but they would be the programmer's goals, options and preferences, not the machine's. Decisions are always about how. We simply cannot choose our needs, desires or preferences. We cannot choose the problems we face or questions we are asked. We can only choose the solutions to the problems and the answers to the questions. – Pertti Ruismäki Sep 07 '23 at 08:22
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    @Pertti In the same way, if I decided I wanted salami pizza because someone once gave me some and I really liked it, but hadn't learned what a pizzeria is or what delivery services are because I grew up under a rock, then I wouldn't know how to fulfil my desire either. Much the same way a machine which hasn't been programmed couldn't do it. The only real difference is that we bring our own basic algorithms to learn and desire to stay alive, whereas we haven't really produced any machines yet that can really do so. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 08:30
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Epiphenomenalism is the view that mental events are caused by physical events in the brain, but have no effects upon any physical events.

If brain events can cause mental events, then vice versa is also possible: mental events must be able to cause brain events. The mechanism that goes from brain events to mental events is a physical mechanism, and hence it must obey the law of reaction. It cannot work only one way, it must work both ways. Epiphenomenalism makes no logical sense, therefore.

Note that nobody can point at anything that would demonstrably be an epiphenomenon. Such things simply do not exist.

And as pointed out by @PerttiRuismäki, if epiphenomena existed, nobody would know about them, by definition...

The concept of epiphenomenon is an oxymoron. It's like saying: "I can touch you but you cannot touch me".

Olivier5
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    I don't understand the premise that an arbitrary cause-effect pair can be reversed such that the effect is actually the cause. It is simply not true that if A can cause B, B must logically be able to cause A. – Nuclear Hoagie Sep 06 '23 at 19:10
  • @NuclearHoagie And yet, all physical processes are in theory reversible, all chemical reactions work both ways, and Newton's third law states that if object A exert a force on object B, then B exert a force on A. There's no such thing as "one-way causality". – Olivier5 Sep 07 '23 at 05:54
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    Some processes are only reversible by turning back time, since entropy only goes one way and prevents the exact restoration of a previous state. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 06:14
  • To be a bit pedantic, entropy is a concept, not a process. Now there are processes that appear unreversible due to "entropy", such as hot and cold water put together becoming warmluke. But my understanding is that the reverse of these are just highly unlikely to happen. Not technically impossible. In any case, it remains the case that if A can impact B via some physical process, then B can impact A via the same process in reverse. There is no one-way street and no dead end to causality. – Olivier5 Sep 07 '23 at 06:24
  • The *same* process in reverse is what's the issue here I think. Even putting entropy aside, not every process can simply be reversed, except by reversing time. Once you've split an atom via one process, putting it back together will require a somewhat different process. — Anyway, with regards to mental events: that really depends on what "mental events" are. If you're talking about your conscious experience of whatever goes on in your brain: we have no clue what consciousness actually is and whether it can do anything besides passively experience stuff. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 06:39
  • @deceze I think of atomic fusion as simply fission in reverse. And I have very little sense of what goes on in my brain. It's all purely theoretical: neurotransmitters, mirror neurons and brain waves are familiar ideas but that's about it. I have no clue what matter actually is. Ideas are more familiar than things. – Olivier5 Sep 07 '23 at 07:31
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    @Olivier5 Atomic fusion has the same problem as entropy, that is during fission you release energy that dissipates randomly while the reverse process would thus require that you'd concentrate energy in addition to the split products, which is not going to happen on it's own. Though why do you focus on the exact process to begin with? Like if you watch a movie and that makes you feel something, then you're feeling isn't going to influence the movie, but it may very well influence your decision making in the real world. So it can have an effect without being a direct reversal of the process. – haxor789 Sep 07 '23 at 10:03
  • "If you watch a movie and that makes you feel something, then you're feeling isn't going to influence the movie" It could. If Ihate the movie enough, I could decide to destroy it, for instance. More generally, any commercial endeavor (such as cinema) implies an exchange: clients will pay money to get the product, and this money will fund continuous production of the product. Any business is a two-way street. – Olivier5 Sep 07 '23 at 10:20
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    @Olivier5 Physical processes are not theoretical concepts. In practice, there is no such thing as a reversible process. Newton's third law does not address causation in any way and is entirely irrelevant. It is rather silly to argue that if pushing a domino causes it to fall over, that the domino falling over can cause you to push it. Temporally, effects must come after causes, it is nonsense to say that an event was caused by something that hasn't even happened yet. – Nuclear Hoagie Sep 07 '23 at 13:08
  • @NuclearHoagie "It is rather silly to argue that if pushing a domino causes it to fall over, that the domino falling over can cause you to push it." Well, if it is silly, don't say it. What I am saying is: if I can touch and push a domino, then potentially a domino can touch and push me. IOW: if A can impact B, then B can impact A. – Olivier5 Sep 07 '23 at 14:16
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    @Olivier5 But the domino example is a pretty clear case where "A causes B" doesnt mean "B causes A", when you define A as pushing the dominoes, and B as the domino stack falling over. Therefore you cant take it as a general rule. It's not even clear how you are trying to fit touching and pushing a domino or vice versa into A and B. Like, the cause and effect are just different in those cases. Touching the domino causes a push on it. The opposite of that would be "pushing the domino causes it to be touched", which typically isn't how we would talk about the cause and effect there. – JMac Sep 07 '23 at 22:00
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    Another good analogy could be through computers. "Brain events" could be the "read only memory" while "mental events" are the rest of the computer. The computer can use the information from the read only memory to cause events in the computer, but those events can never change the read only memory. They just access it as part of a system that does other things besides affecting the read only memory. I guess even more clear would be a computer input like a mouse. Physically moving it affects the computer, but the computer has no way to move the mouse. – JMac Sep 07 '23 at 22:12
  • @JMac The point is not it that each and every cause to effect relationship must run both ways all the time. The point is that it could, potentially. So for instance, if the movements of your mouse can generate electric current, then it follows that electric current can generate movement. If your mouse can send information to your computer, then it follows that your computer can send information to the mouse (eg when pairing). – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 06:45
  • @Olivier5 But your computer can only send information back to inputs that have some sort of feedback system with the computer, and not everything that can give the computer information is capable of receiving it from the computer. So when you say "If brain events can cause mental events, then vice versa is also possible: mental events must be able to cause brain events." it isnt justified, at best you could say "mental events might possibly cause brain events". – JMac Sep 08 '23 at 10:29
  • @JMac Not sure I see a huge difference between "must be able to" and "might possibly". The point is that if brain events can affect mental events, the reverse is also possible. It cannot be said to be impossible. – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 10:52
  • @Olivier5 It could be impossible though, like a (perfect) computer affecting its read only memory. "Might possibly" means we cant rule it out, whereas "must be able to" means that we've already ruled it in, which requires more than just not ruling it out. – JMac Sep 08 '23 at 13:13
  • @JMac The info on the "read only" memory has been written in the chip by someone, and therefore it is possible to do so. Nevertheless, your point that I may overstate the case is well taken. I should say: "If folks can envision or believe that brain events cause mental events, why can't they envision / believe that the reverse is possible? It would be natural, since all (simple) physical processes are in theory reversible." – Olivier5 Sep 08 '23 at 14:43
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It is not as if there is a basket of thoughts among which we pick one out of.

Perhaps this is exactly what is going on, but we are not or only dimly aware of what goes into the picking process.

(One helluva preposition-at-the-end construction, though.)

Deipatrous
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  • Not to put words into anyone's mouth, but as far as I get the argument, free-will proponents state that this "picking out thoughts" is what free will is. Then yes, being only dimly aware of what goes into the picking process would mean that there is no free will. The "basket of thoughts" is anything your brain could conceivably come up with, which is mostly a function of your prior experience and the resulting connections it built. The process by which thoughts come to mind is ultimately mysterious, and something like an "implementation detail" of the brain. – deceze Sep 07 '23 at 23:34