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For example, assume these two propositions.

A.) My mother is real

B.) The earth is a sphere

How does one show, as a matter of fact that believing in A.) is more reasonable than B.)?

One may point to B.) as most would do intuitively and claim that A.) is possibly false and B.) doesn’t seem to be. But B.) can be conceived of as being false. It is possible that you’ve simply been lied to, and people have all coalesced together into fooling you that the earth is spherical when it is instead flat.

Of course, the response would be that the probability of that is very low. But what does this mean and how does one justify this? We don’t have a series of possible worlds in which to check how often people try to fool others into thinking that the earth is a sphere.

So again, as a matter of fact, how does one show that believing in B.) is more reasonable than A.)? Note that I am not asking about how one can come up with a system or model to represent comparative reasonableness. Nor am I asking about whether humans seem to feel, as a matter of psychological fact, more confidence in one belief over the other.

My question is moreso in what ontological sense do these degrees of reasonableness actually exist? Is there an objective level of reasonableness of belief A more than belief B? If not, as Russell would put it, is there no intellectual difference between people that we would consider sane vs insane?

  • there are pretty good stop-gaps in certain cases for what I’m assuming are empirical claims based on your examples. Ex: it’s just simply more reasonable to have a higher credence that Spain will win in the quarter-finals than in the semi-finals. Even if the World Cup is normative, and the quarter-finals could be canceled and the semi-finals played (some kind of extraordinary once in a century novel situation), the bettor is who bets oppositely is “insane” and less intellectually reasonable. – J Kusin Aug 25 '23 at 20:49
  • Your argument is circular. You are simply claiming that A is more reasonable than B without explaining why or what it means for A to be more reasonable than B. In this case, A = winning in quarter finals and B = winning in semi finals –  Aug 25 '23 at 21:08
  • Maybe I wasn’t clear, apologies. To even compete in the semi finals requires winning in the quarter finals. B requires A. The argument is plain (just a simple tournament structure). Does that make it non-circular for you? – J Kusin Aug 25 '23 at 21:28
  • There is no ontological sense to criminal laws either, they are human creations, but one can get into a lot of trouble thinking that they do not "actually" exist. You should change your title to something more reflective of the post, like "do degrees of reasonableness have an ontological basis?" And your "ontological sense" has to be relativized to pose a non-trivial question. Because how "reasonable" it is for X to believe A will obviously depend on how much X knows about A and not just on ontology. So the naive answer will be trivially no. – Conifold Aug 25 '23 at 22:58
  • We don't know your ontological position such as you're ontological monist or dualist? If you're material monist, then perhaps most consciousness related things such as rationality (your reasonableness and further degree thereof) are your self-intended illusions from your psychic contingent upon your experiences... – Double Knot Aug 26 '23 at 00:37

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