So there are a lot of fixed-income funds, and the ones focusing on non-investment grade corporate bonds seem to produce a lot of interest (around 7~8% each year). Now my question is almost all of them have the disclaimer that dividends may be paid out of the capital. This sounds horrific.
Is there a way for me, as an investor, to know exactly how much is paid out of the capital? Because I am assuming that this statement means if I invested $10,000 at for example a Net Asset Value of 20, collecting a very nice 7~8% interest, and when in the future the NAV rises to 23 and I opt to sell my holdings, I might not actually get $11500 because "dividends may be paid out of the capital". I'll get less money back. Maybe even less than the $10,000 I initially put in.
So in the extreme does this mean the fund literally takes 7~8% out of my own money and give it to me less fees? How is this amount exactly quantified? Otherwise this sounds like a horrible scam.
Thanks for the help!
How is that even possible, without distorting both general and financial English?
How am I wrong to think that 'dividends' necessarily come from earnings; profits?
How am I wrong to think that a payment out of capital might be something like a disbursement but it can't be a 'dividend'?
– Robbie Goodwin Feb 21 '24 at 22:44