Let $R$ be a ring. A notable theorem of N. Jacobson states that if the identity $x^{n}=x$ holds for every $x \in R$ and a fixed $n \geq 2$ then $R$ is a commutative ring.
The proof of the result for the cases $n=2, 3,4$ is the subject matter of several well-known exercises in Herstein's Topics in Algebra. The corresponding proofs rely heavily on "elementary" manipulations. For instance, the proof of the case $n=3$ can be done as follows:
1) If $a, b \in R$ are such that $ab= 0$ then $ba=0$.
2) $a^{2}$ and $-a^{2}$ belong to $\mathbf{Z}(R)$ for every $a \in R$.
3) Since $(a^{2}+a)^{3} = (a^{2}+a)^{2}+(a^{2}+a)^{2}$ it follows that
$a=a+a^{2}-a^{2} = (a+a^{2})^{3}-a^{2} = (a^{2}+a)^{2}+(a^{2}+a)^{2}-a^{2}$
and whence the result. ▮
Certainly, the mind can't but boggle at the succinctness of the above solution. Actually, it is the conciseness of this argument that has prompted me to pose the present question: is an analogous demonstration of the general theorem possible? The one that appears in [1] depends on some non-trivial structure theorems for division rings.
As usual, I thank you in advance for your insightful replies, reading suggestions, web links, etc...
References
[1] I. N. Herstein, Noncommutative rings, The Carus Mathematical Monographs, no. 15, Mathematical Association of America, 1968.
[2] I. N. Herstein, Álgebra Moderna, Ed. Trillas, págs. 112, 119, and 153.
My idle speculation is that there should be a "calculational" proof like the given one for any particular $n$, but there being such a proof for all $n$ seems unlikely. Treating general $n$ I suspect needs "second-order" concepts: subrings, ideals, quotients, stuff like that.
– Robin Chapman Jun 26 '10 at 18:55http://www.jstor.org/pss/1969205
The second paragraph contains the result with varying exponent. – Will Jagy Jun 27 '10 at 02:45