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In case a person living in a European country gets sued in an other European country because at the suer's say the interested person has committed such and such a thing against them, while it is supposed in this very scenario that the latter is falsehood, and gets called in court but at the end is found innocent, can the person accused appeal to the European court of justice because of the time lost unjustly just at someone's say and the accuser not paying the consequences for it?

I mean, the fact that the accused person may result innocent is obviously not enough, because they have lost money and time just for someone's saying.

So in case this happens, how can one possibly appeal to a sovra-national entity agains the court that called just at someone's say?

abdul
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    "Getting sued" implies civil claims, not criminal charges, and extradition generally does not apply to civil claims, only criminal prosecution. This is a meaningful contradiction, and it would be important to clarify whether you're asking about civil claims, or making false claims resulting in a prosecutor pressing criminal charges, as those are two very, very different scenarios. Furthermore, I should note this seems to have some overlap with the earlier question https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/45895/hypothetical-scenario-in-which-an-innocent-person-is-involved-and-dragged-in – Peteris Nov 04 '19 at 20:51
  • No this is not the same question, and I'm aware of it, because in the former I asked which is the most likely outcome, this one I asked how to appeal on the worse outcome. That's different. – abdul Nov 04 '19 at 21:21
  • Can you please [edit] the question to split your first paragraph into lots of much smaller sentences. I'm afraid I can't read what you have written. – Martin Bonner supports Monica Nov 05 '19 at 16:25

2 Answers2

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Civil law

If person A sues person B; the loser generally pays the winners costs. These cover (part) of the legal fees and reasonable out-of-pocket expenses like travel and accommodation. The do not cover B’s time.

Some courts and tribunals cannot issue costs orders. For example, many small claims courts can’t and many arbitration agreements require each party to bear their own costs.

Criminal law

If country (or state/province) X prosecutes person Z for a crime; win or lose Z has to pay for their own defence.

If country X has brought the case arbitrarily or maliciously or with reckless negligence (e.g. by actually having evidence which exonerates Z), Z may have the right to sue. However, if this didn’t happen and there was a prima facie case against Z, then Z just pays whatever it costs them.

Dale M
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  • What if a person has no money? Because there are many people who are propertyless and salaryless and have nothing. I mean...what can they do in that case? – abdul Nov 05 '19 at 20:25
  • @abdul Most countries have public defenders and legal aid that provide their services for free to individuals who qualify. – Dale M Nov 05 '19 at 20:27
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"Can the person accused appeal to the European court of justice?"

You seem to assume the ECJ is an Europe-wide appeals court; it isn't. The chief function of the ECJ is to ensure EU law is applied the same in the whole EU. Also the ECJ rules in some cases where the EU itself is sued. Neither applies to this case, so the ECJ does not have jurisdiction.

MSalters
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  • What about the Bulgarian Muslim woman who appealed to the ECJ for discrimination against her? – abdul Nov 05 '19 at 20:16