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This is probably a simple question, but why do so many ancient Roman names (both first and last) end in "-us"? For example: Marcus Aurelius, Josephus Flavius, Julius, Maximus, Hadrianus, Titus, Jesus, etc. What does this suffix mean, and why was it so common?

Note: I tried researching this online, but because of my complete lack of understanding of Latin, I couldn't make heads or tails of the explanations.

Lo ani
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In Latin, -us marks the name as being (likely to be) masculine and the subject of a sentence. When Latin names are used in English, the second part is treated as irrelevant, but the association with gender is still apparent.

Like English, Latin makes use of suffixes to mark word inflection. Inflection means that the same word can take different forms depending on its function in a sentence: some examples of inflection in English are the difference between the singular noun dog and the plural noun dogs, or between the verb forms help, helps, and helped. But English has relatively few inflectional suffixes compared to Latin.

Latin nouns and adjectives change form depending on their function in a sentence. This is called 'case'. English has a remnant of this kind of distinction in pronouns, such as "I" vs. "me": "I" is used as a subject ("I run") whereas "me" is used as an object ("They saw me"). In Latin, ordinary nouns are also distinguished this way. "Titus currit" means "Titus runs" (with "Titus" as the subject of the verb), whereas "vident Titum" means "They see Titus" (with "Titum" as the direct object of the verb).

"Titus" is the form of the name that would be used as the subject of a verb. The name also has the forms "Titi", "Tito", "Titum", "Tite", each with their own use. But a common convention when mentioning Latin words in isolation is to cite the form used for the subject, so that is what got borrowed into English.

One last thing that should be mentioned is gender. Latin has three genders, or noun classes, called masculine, feminine, and neuter. As with modern Romance languages, many words for inanimate objects belong to the masculine or feminine noun class. However, words that denote male persons are almost always masculine, and words that denote female persons are almost always feminine: in this case, we can say that the noun class matches the word's 'natural gender'. In the case of personal names, in fact, I think the noun class always matches the natural gender.

The ending -us is specifically associated with the masculine gender*: the feminine counterpart of this ending is usually -a. Hence, the masculine name Julius has the feminine counterpart Julia, Flavius has Flavia, and many more names exist in masculine-feminine pairs like this. (In fact, at a certain time period in ancient Rome it was customary to refer to a woman by the feminine form of her father's family name; thus, Julia is the name of the daughter of Julius, Claudia is the name of the daughter of Claudius, etc. A name that ends in -ius or -ia is usually a family name, called in Latin a "nomen gentilicium".)

The -us in Jesus has a somewhat different etymology from the other names in your question. This name actually has irregular forms, but I won't elaborate as that doesn't change much about the overall concept.


*There are some exceptions to -us being a masculine ending: a small number of uncommon feminine nouns, and some neuter nouns (such as corpus, genus, tempus) that actually end in an unrelated but homophonous ending that is also spelled -us.

Asteroides
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  • Thank you! Is there somewhere on the site (or elsewhere) I can learn more about the name Jesus? You've piqued my interest :) – Lo ani Jan 25 '24 at 14:56
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    @Loani: A previous question about the name "Jesus" on this site: Why is Jesus inflected in such a way? – Asteroides Jan 25 '24 at 15:05
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    Not just Romance languages, but pretty much all languages with a concept of grammatical gender (including a significant majority of the Indo-European languages outside of the Indo-Aryan and Germanic families) match gender for personal names. This is in fact why it’s called grammatical gender, the noun classes of personal names match up with gender (mostly), so that’s what linguists decided to call it. – Austin Hemmelgarn Jan 26 '24 at 03:07
  • @AustinHemmelgarn : Not sure what you're saying about Germanic languages, but standard modern German distinguishes among masculine, feminine, and neuter nouns, pronouns, adjectives, articles, and demonstratives, when they are singular. But none of the above kinds of words distinguish different genders from each other when they are plural. And also among nominative, genitive, dative, and accusatives cases (ablative and vocative and other cases besides those four do not exist in modern German). – Michael Hardy Jan 26 '24 at 03:59
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    OP: If you're curious for a bit more: Asteroides hit everything on the head, but there are actually two forms of nouns that define them: the subject case that Asteroides mentioned, and then another that you can basically think of as "apostrophe-s": "Titi" that Asteroides mentioned is "Titus's". It's this second form that more often gets borrowed in English. For -us nouns, it doesn't matter, because both cases have the same root: but for other kinds of nouns, it does. For example, "peace" is "pax", and "peace's" is "pacis". It's that second form that we recognize in words like "pacify". – yshavit Jan 26 '24 at 08:12
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    Thanks @yshavit – Lo ani Jan 26 '24 at 12:53
  • @MichaelHardy A number of Germanic languages either have lost all grammatical gender outside of pronouns (English, Afrikaans, Modern Scots), or have merged the masculine and feminine forms (Frisian, Danish, most dialects of Swedish, some dialects of Dutch and Norwegian). – Austin Hemmelgarn Jan 26 '24 at 13:39
  • @AustinHemmelgarn: When I asked about the female name "Gretchen" on the German SE, both of the speakers who answered said they would use a neuter article with the name based on the rule for the suffix -chen, despite it being a proper name for a woman/girl. But names/nicknames formed like this do not seem to be either usual or productive in modern standard German. – Asteroides Jan 26 '24 at 13:46
  • @AustinHemmelgarn Not sure about all Slavic languages, but certainly Czech certainly uses the masculine for male surnames (and nicknames in the old times before surname formalization) even if they directly come from feminine words. Smetana is a famous composer. The word smetana=cream is feminine. The surname is masculine. Its female counterpart is derived from this masculine form as Smetanová. Similarly for Mucha (mucha= a fly). – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 27 '24 at 09:17
  • An exception to that is the modern practice used by women marrying foreigners and in addition to that mainly feminists, who keep the male form of the surname even when accepting the husband's name. So one TV journalist is named Smetana even though she is female. This is a total exception, though, and it is unclear whether her surname should be declined as the original feminine word smetana, or just not declined at all. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 27 '24 at 12:27
  • "There are some exceptions to -us being a masculine ending (...) that actually end in (...) -us." - and there are also exceptions the other way around: masculine nouns that do not end in "-us", such as "poeta" or "argicola". – Trang Oul Jan 28 '24 at 15:40
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In the Proto-Indo-European (PIE) reconstructed language *-os used to be the first case ending for many masculine nouns (o stem nouns). In Greek you can witness this directly still today. In Germanic or Slavic languages it disapeared a few thousands years ago (the -s still exists in Baltic) but it was still current in Old Latin.

One of the changes between Old Latin and Classical Latin was the change from -os to -us that is so well known even to people who do not understand any Latin. However, these are still o-stem nouns. nom. case servus, dative and ablative case servō, genitive plural case servōrum.

E.g. PIE *wĺ̥kʷos -> Old Latin (or predecessors) lupos -> Classical Latin lupus
c.f.
Greek λυκος, Lithianian vilkas

and, of course, many well-known Greek names ending with -os (-ος), Petros, Homeros, Alexandros,...

even though some of them are known in English with -us through Latin (e.g. Patroclus, actually Patroklos Πάτροκλος, or Aeschylus - Αἰσχύλος).

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    Aside: This reason is also why many Sanskrit male names end in -a (Rama, Krishna, Shiva, etc): it's the same cognate -as ending, with the "s" interpreted/changed to visarga at the end of the word in Sanskrit, and dropped entirely when considering the "base" (nominal stem, prātipadika) form. – ShreevatsaR Jan 26 '24 at 19:22