I've recently learned the Romans and Greeks were aware of their linguistic connection (aeolism). However, I couldn't find anything pertaining to their more obvious relationship with the Sabellic tribes. Did the Romans view the Osco-Umbrian tribes as particularly close ethnically and linguistically, did they try to distance themselves from them in order to seem more "civilized" (more greek), or did they not really care much? Thanks in advance.
Asked
Active
Viewed 120 times
7
-
4Related question: Do any Latin authors mention other Italic languages? – Asteroides Feb 18 '23 at 02:40