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This question is triggered by another question about wheatear the "ad" is prepositional or purpose.

In theory, we should see examples where something like this happens:

Discipuli Marcum ad epistulam mittendam ad magistrum miserunt.

In which we have a prepositional phrase (ad magistrum) inside purpose clause that is initiated by ad.

Do we have such examples?

(As noted in the comments the previous example: Iulia epistulam ad mittendam/mittendum ad regem Marco tradit is problematic, though I think that if one uses the gerund (mittendum) is grammatical and theoretically possible.)

d_e
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  • Why would we have the first ad? I'd think it would be Iulia epistulam mittendam tradit. – TKR Jul 18 '22 at 20:04
  • @TKR, that's what the linked question and answers show - that the proposed ad is unnecessary. But my current understanding is it is optional to have one. just as the other example from Wiki: L. Septimium tribūnum militum ad interficiendum Pompeium mīsērunt. Specifically, From my experience (which prone to many biases) - the propose ad almost always seen (unless it is the with the verb curo) – d_e Jul 18 '22 at 20:12
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    @d_e they are two completely separate constructions. In your example, ad is necessary, because the object of the verb (tribunum) and the object of the gerundival purpose clause (Pompeium) are different. If the object of both the main verb and the purpose clause are the same, and the purpose clause would be passive, the bare gerundive is used as an object complement. – Kingshorsey Jul 18 '22 at 20:17
  • @Kingshorsey, you are right. and that was careless response from my side indeed. However, my core essence point holds well. we can change the last sentence as such: tribunum ad epistulam mittendam ad regem miserunt. Apparently it was spared only because trado might take the dative. – d_e Jul 18 '22 at 20:23

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