Fourth conjugation imperfect -e

Question

in the fourth conjugation imperfect after the stem and before the imperfect indicator there is -e. e .g. audi + e + ba +t.

Where this -e comes from?

The -e- is not compulsory, but it is indeed common. I suspect the -e- is the same as in the third conjugation, and I look forward to seeing answers with some details. — Joonas Ilmavirta, Jan 26 '21 at 11:05

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered Feb 07 '21 at 10:52

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To students asking questions like this, I say, "I don't know, you'd have to ask Cicero when you get to meet him." Yes, that e is not always there, so in that sense not "required." Why is it there? Somehow speakers of Latin liked it, viz. thought it sounded "good," "clear," whatever.

answered Feb 07 '21 at 10:52

Batavulus

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I'll try to summon Varro then :) – Dachi Pachulia Feb 07 '21 at 17:48

score 1 · Answer 2 · answered Sep 07 '21 at 08:39

I was reading through the active and passive imperfect conjugations in the reference grammar in the Oxford Latin book II yesterday. To address the question, the thought I had, was the imperfect suffix in having been 'formed' seemed to be a combination of the 1st to 2nd future conjugation (long a in ab in 1st, long e in eb in 2nd), and the final suffix in the 3rd to 4th (as well as mixed) future conjugations.

And by chance came across this site and this question today.

Fourth conjugation imperfect -e

2 Answers2