7

From this answer and Allen & Greenough §493, I understand that Latin does not have a perfect active participle. But on Wiktionary, I see the following usage note in the entry on the suffix -vus:

Originally forming the perfect active participle, as in alvus ‎(“entity having nourished”), clīvus ‎(“entity having leaned”), gnāvus ‎(“having known”).

It's not clear if this is meant to suggest that Latin had a perfect active participle at one point, or if it only existed in Proto-Indo-European.

What is the history of the perfect active participle in Latin? Did Classical Latin or Old Latin ever have such a thing, or did it die out in Proto-Italic or prior?

Nathaniel is protesting
  • 11,379
  • 4
  • 40
  • 119
  • I've heard deponent perfect participles described as "active" before (like locutus or hortatus), but that doesn't seem relevant to the PIE question. – brianpck Aug 31 '16 at 14:51

1 Answers1

7

Wiktionary seems to be wrong. De Vaan derives clīvus and gnāvus from forms with the PIE suffix *-wo-, which is not the same as the pf. ppl. suffix *-wos-; he derives alvus by metathesis from an earlier aulos. Weiss lists the first two along with many others under nouns formed with the suffix -uo-.

The PIE perfect participle was athematic and had *-wōs in the masc. nom. sg. It's hard to see how such a form would end up in the Latin second declension; you'd expect a paradigm ending in -ōs, -uris, or perhaps by analogy looking like flōs, flōris or honor, honōris.

TKR
  • 31,292
  • 2
  • 66
  • 120