Is there a semantic difference between "Etiam si omnes, ego non" and "Et si omnes ego non"?
I know Latin is loose when it comes to word order, and it seems to me the answer is no, but the way this sentence is worded in this Wikipedia article has me wondering if the uncommon "Et si omnes" changes the meaning in any way:
A variant is Et si omnes ego non, as written on the door of Philipp von Boeselager's home, highlighting the necessity of maintaining one's own opinion and moral judgment, even in the face of a differing view held by the majority (in particular, it refers to von Boeselager's dissent and resistance against Hitler during the Nazi dictatorship).
The original, common "Etiam si omnes, ego non" also highlights the necessity of maintaining one's own opinion and moral judgment, even in the face of a differing view held by the majority. Any difference, or poor wording?
[Note: I am not asking if there is a big difference in the meanings, which there is not, but if there is a very fine, nuanced difference in the semantic stress of the sentence, created by the very fine, nuanced difference in the Latin]