For those who speak both Chinese and Japanese, would first learning Chinese make it easier to learn Japanese?
I know that Japanese Kanji are derived from Chinese characters.
For those who speak both Chinese and Japanese, would first learning Chinese make it easier to learn Japanese?
I know that Japanese Kanji are derived from Chinese characters.
For English speakers, this site breaks down how many "hours" or weeks it takes to get "proficient"
http://www.effectivelanguagelearning.com/language-guide/language-difficulty
If you want some detailed breakdowns, there is a nice analysis of relative language difficulties available here https://www.nsa.gov/public_info/_files/cryptologic_spectrum/foreign_language.pdf
One key way that languages are rated (in terms of difficulty) is basic grammatical orderings of "subject object and verb."
Group I (VSO):
Arabic, Hebrew, Ancient Egyptian,
Celtic, Polynesian languages
Group II (SVO):
Romance languages, English,
Russian, Chinese, German,
Albanian, Greek, Khmer,
Vietnamese, all Thai languages
except Khamti, Malay, Dutch,
Icelandic, Slavonic, Norwegian,
Swedish, Danish, Finnish,
Estonian, Serbian
Group III (SOV):
Japanese, Korean, Turkish,
Burmese, Hindi, Navaho, Tibetan,
most Australian languages
From the list above, you can see that Chinese (presumably both Mandarin and Cantonese) fit into the pattern of SVO or Subject+Verb+Object.
In mastering Japanese it would benefit one more greatly to study a language in the third grouping, to get one's "mind" wrapped into the form of SOV where the verb comes at the end. Thus, in preference to learning Chinese, which is roughly the same grammatical trickiness as English, you might want to look into Hindi, Tibetan, or even Turkish.
Knowing Chinese would probably help with the lexicon and mastering the writing system, but the Japanese writing system is catered for a language that is entirely different in terms of spoken sounds; even though they are derived from the same origin, their paths have diverged substantially in the last 1000-2000 years. This is not surprising if you look at how much English has changed since the time of Shakespeare, and that is an example of linguistic entropy within the "same" language.
In short: For writing, maybe yes. For grammar, there are other languages which exhibit closer behavior.