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Would one be accurate in stating that it was the general ideological and political consensus and subsequent actions of the Western World during the early to mid 1800s that were primarily responsible for ending slavery and serfdom as legal institutions around the world? Prior to that were slavery/serfdom legally allowed for the vast majority of countries, ruling over the vast majority of peoples around the world? Were any edicts, that may have ended slavery prior to the Western ideological and political general consensus, rather limited in enforcement, time and geography?

Glorfindel
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Keith626
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  • China got rid of slavery earlier – Astor Florida Mar 23 '23 at 18:04
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    "In 1807 Britain and soon after, the United States also, both criminalized the international slave trade. The Royal Navy was increasingly effective in intercepting slave ships, freeing the captives and taking the crew for trial in courts." Wikipedia and " Britain ended slavery in its empire in the 1830s." – MCW Mar 23 '23 at 18:23
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    There is no such thing as "the Western World": There are many different countries with different laws and histories. This makes your question very unclear. – Moishe Kohan Mar 23 '23 at 18:40
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    Regarding China, this per wikipedia: "In the 14th century, the Hongwu Emperor ordered an end to all slavery, but in practice slavery continued without heed to his commands. In the 18th century, the Yongzheng Emperor made similar attempts to abolish slavery. In 1909, the Qing officially abolished slavery, but due to internal turmoil and its demise, the institution persisted until 1949 when the People's Republic of China was founded.[4]" – Keith626 Mar 23 '23 at 22:51
  • @KeithGentile Yes. Please note, just like China, the United States has been trying to eliminate the practice of slavery, but despite the legislation, slavery is still being practiced.

    Also, please note that China's first known ban on slavery is about 2000 years ago.

    – Astor Florida Mar 23 '23 at 23:06
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    @Astor Florida: The point of the comment--as was explained in the original question--is that in other than brief moments in history and geography, was the world made up of countries or civilizations that allowed slavery up until the Western World started to prohibit it. Momentary decrees that neither lasted long or were never substantially enforced wouldn't count. – Keith626 Mar 23 '23 at 23:34
  • @Astor Florida: As per China's history of abolition, it was fleeting and, when active, not enforced. Any reasonable person would recognize that the US and certainly the majority of countries in the world today are doing their best to eliminate any pockets of what might be considered slavery. – Keith626 Mar 23 '23 at 23:43
  • Does that account for places that never had this institution in the first place? Now, not sure if any particular region never allowed indentured servitude or slavery, but wouldn't they, by definition, be the first? – Italian Philosophers 4 Monica Mar 24 '23 at 00:40
  • @KeithGentile There is no guarantee, historically, that slavery will continue to be relatively rare. – Astor Florida Mar 24 '23 at 01:59
  • Consider the fact that slave labor was widely used in USSR (at least, during Stalin's times) and in Nazi Germany. How does it fit in your narrative? Or should these two countries be excluded from the "Western World?" I am voting to close the question until there is enough clarity. – Moishe Kohan Mar 24 '23 at 03:10
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    Some of the comments seem not to distinguish between "de jure and de facto slavery. Trafficking, the sex trade and sweat shop labour are endemic problems, but in many (most? ) countries are not legal. This is very different from my being able to go to my local court and openly assert that Jane Bloggs is my personal, legal property. – TheHonRose Mar 24 '23 at 03:34
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    Before we re-open, I'd like to see the issues raised in comments addressed, and preliminary research documented. OP comments (at least to me) significantly change the question, and I'm not sure I understand what is being asked. Is the intended question about the prevalence of slavery, or the origin of the idea of abolition, or the first de jure abolition? I think some clarification of the question would help to eliminate many of the comments that seem to rest on ambiguities in the question – MCW Mar 24 '23 at 13:25
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    As asked, the answer has to be "no" because "the global ending of slavery" hasn't happened. – shoover Mar 24 '23 at 23:57
  • It is better now but still muddled, in particular, due to lack of clarity of what "Western" means (European countries minus Ottoman empire, plus Russia and Americas?) and "de facto" vs. "de jure." Also, I suggest you read and cite Wikipedia articles https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brussels_Anti-Slavery_Conference_1889%E2%80%9390 and, more importantly, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1926_Slavery_Convention – Moishe Kohan Mar 26 '23 at 18:46
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    I believe having to define what "Western" means is well beyond the remit of the question. A perfectly serviceable definition exists by opening up any dictionary, includeing the various nuances of the term. (Although I believe the Ottoman empire would be quite a stretch.). "The West" appears multiple times in StackExchange without the requirement of a definition; having to do so would run counter to StackExghange precidents. Per Slavery Convention, pls see revision, and "general" was added since it would be difficult to know what was the Kingdom of Saxon's position in 1833, 1843 or 1853. – Keith626 Mar 27 '23 at 15:05
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    De jure I believe was clearly stated in the body: ". . . ending slavery and serfdom as legal institutions . . . ." – Keith626 Mar 27 '23 at 15:08

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If I read it correctly, your question is:

"Were the Western World's general political and ideological consensus and consequent actions primarily responsible for the global ending [the legal institution of] slavery?"

There is considerable debate in the historical community about this.

One prominent theory is the the industrial revolution led to a structure of labor that was more efficient than slavery. In a few words, the rise of wage labor was more economically efficient than slave labor.

Another theory is that the mechanization of farming led to the end of slavery - that is, machines made agricultural slavery obsolete.

Another theory is that as European culture became more enlightened and democratic, the abolitionist movement naturally gained steam and became mainstream.

While it is likely that these or other theories are responsible for the impetus and motivation behind the ending of the legal institution of slavery, one thing is clear: Slavery as a legal institution was ended was worldwide for two reasons. First, because the Europeans in the 1800's were opposed to slavery. More importantly, the second reason is because Europeans controlled most of the world's legal systems via colonialism, and were thus able to impose their will upon the rest of humanity.

Please note that the Europeans exported their economic models as well, which made the abolition of slavery stick. Whether the export of the industrial revolution was good or bad is, of course, a matter of opinion.

Astor Florida
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    I like this answer. Helps to clarify the question and then offers a survey of the diversity of answers. I'd love it if you could cite those answers so that I could do further research. – MCW Mar 30 '23 at 12:24
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    I'll add the update tonight. – Astor Florida Mar 30 '23 at 13:16
  • @Astor Florida. As per the industrialization/mechanization perspective, in the early to mid 1800s in Europe, this played a minor role in at least what the majority of people would be toiling at: agriculture. https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/document?repid=rep1&type=pdf&doi=5fc30e9853451485126b9216bca7ed5f3d1034b5. An exception would be the cotton gin, which indeed increased productivity by the mid 1800s substantially. However, according to the National Archives: "Cotton growing became so profitable for enslavers that it greatly increased their demand for both land and enslaved labor." – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 15:18
  • @Astor Florida. Any substantive transference of technologies from colonizer to colony would have been minimal for a long time after the period in question. And, as stated, at the time may have only increased the value of enslaved labor. – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 15:37
  • @Astor Florida. One more point is I'm not sure how wage labor could be cheaper than slave labor. The implication being that slave labor would be economically preferable to a worker than paid salary. Could this be true? And once again, in other than brief moments in time and history? Would like to see a citation in order to better understand this train of thought. – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 17:12
  • Sorry, I meant: ". . . in other than brief moments in geography and history?" – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 17:20
  • @Keith626 The point of my answer is "Thie cause of the end of slavery is an area of debate for what brought about the end of slavery, with no concrete answer". Please understand this. – Astor Florida Mar 30 '23 at 21:02
  • @Keith626 RE: industrial revolution, in England, slavery ended in 1807, as the industrial revolution was growing. In USA, slaver ended in 1865, about the time when the industrial revolution was starting in the USA. I will add a reference supporting this theory later – Astor Florida Mar 30 '23 at 21:05
  • Concerning colonies, they were tied to the global economy, and thus subject to international economics. This meant in the years after WWII, when they were reverting to independence, they did not re-introduce slavery as it was not a good economic model. I have a reference for this, will add it later. – Astor Florida Mar 30 '23 at 21:07
  • The idea that wage labor is cheaper than slave labor comes from Adam Smith's Wealth of Nations. That is, slaves have a lot of overhead costs (housing, food, health care, overseers, police, etc) with a lower work productivity. OTOH, in a place where there is a surplus population, wage labor can have a much lower overhead cost while workers compete to a limited number of jobs. In that competition, workers have a better performance with wages that decrease with the supply of workers. – Astor Florida Mar 30 '23 at 21:15
  • @ Astor Florida. The platform has asked us to move to chat in order to "avoid extended discussions in comments." If I understand what chat is, a back-and-forth online discussion that involves two people both being online at the same time and when finished, having no history left to point to on how the final conclusions were arrived at, I have three problems with this: 1.) It eliminates time for deliberation and research 2.) it eliminates the ability to demonstrate a logical progression from one idea to the next and 3.) it truncates any attempt by third parties to add to the information. – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 22:13
  • @ Astor Florida. Sorry, I'm replying to you but not sure who I'm supposed to be responding to. At any rate, a simple fix to any clutter that might be distracting would be the simple addition of a "Reply" option after each comment, which just about every site has. Opening a forum for open discussion in order to arrive at any given truth and then limiting what can be said by quantity or space allotted I find to be rather self-defeating. I have responses I'd like to give to some of your points, but don't know if it would serve anyone by shuffling it off to a private conversation. – Keith626 Mar 30 '23 at 22:22
  • I just realized you are new - welcome to stack exchange. I hope you stick around, it is a great place to learn. Generally, comments can be deleted at any time without cause. They are like barn cats – Astor Florida Mar 31 '23 at 02:42