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Why were bastards historically not able to inherit nobility or monarchy from their parents? What about being a bastard made one unfit to rule? For example William IV of the UK was succeeded by his niece Queen Victoria instead of any of his children because all 10 of them were bastards.

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    The bastard cannot inherit from both parents, and often both parents had lands under their control. Is not about being fit or not, is about the right to inherit from as many sources as possible to increase the power. Nobility after all is the control over land. – Santiago Apr 20 '17 at 15:40
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    In many cases, only the firstborn, or a selected 'heir' actually inherited title, so it wasn't just singling out bastards. Not enough titles to go around. – justCal Apr 20 '17 at 18:32
  • But in a case where the persons only child was a bastard they still would not inherit – Yosef Mordechai Coleman Apr 20 '17 at 18:33
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    I think it would benefit everyone here if you could provide the instance in which you are talking about since it seems you have a specific one in mind. Or if not maybe research one that is close to what you are talking about to give us some context to go off of. – EvanM Apr 20 '17 at 18:50
  • It was simply a cultural prejudice, in the same way that women didn't inherit the crown unless there were absolutely no male alternatives. Or that people were allowed only one spouse, who had to be of the opposite sex, &c. – jamesqf Apr 20 '17 at 19:09
  • edited to give an example – Yosef Mordechai Coleman Apr 20 '17 at 19:13
  • Related: https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/12521/which-bastards-became-kings – AllInOne Apr 20 '17 at 22:33
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    Seems to be a Catholic religious decree in the mid-8th century - illegitimate children were (are) considered sinful, and ended up with many legal disabilities, such as property and title inheritance, right up until the late 20th and early 21st centuries across Europe and the Americas. Apparently, there was a papal decree made to Offa of Mercia that bastard children could not inherit the throne. –  Apr 21 '17 at 03:07
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  • There are cases when bastards raised a claim to titles (even crown), supported by their father. 2) Bastards, by definition, have only shaky proofs about the real fatherhood. 3) Bastards are often born to less prestigious families, even common people. 4) Since marriage between nobles was generally part of a political pact, a bastard inheriting anything is potentially canceling such contracts. 5) Inheritance is never clean cut: if there is no firstborn legitimate male heir, there are always a problem. Why would anyone let illegitimate children into these pillow fights?
  • – Greg Apr 21 '17 at 04:12
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    @Greg: Re your #2, bastards have neither more nor less proof of actual fatherhood than anyone else. See e.g. Homer "It's a wise child that knows its own father." – jamesqf Apr 21 '17 at 04:25
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    @jamesqf If someone is born in a marriage, the father is automatically assumed to be the husband, unless guilt is proven. That is a rather common legal practice in most civilizations. If a servant's 20 years old son says his father is the king who died 10 years ago (and have 5 other siblings from 5 other father) generally the burden of proof is on him. When we play this game back to a couple of generations (e.g. in case a hereditary line dies out)... – Greg Apr 21 '17 at 05:10
  • @HorusKol very good. That should be posted as an answer – Mike Apr 21 '17 at 16:21
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    @Greg: But the born in a marriage assumption is simply a handy myth, a bit of cultural self-delusion. It's like the way women always say that a young baby looks just like it's father, even though to an unbiased observer, babies only look like other babies. The idea is to persuade the possibly jealous putative father that he really is the biological parent. – jamesqf Apr 21 '17 at 18:32