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I've read somewhere that the ratio of Soviet to German casualties on the Eastern front was 1.4 for the whole war. But what about data for different stages of the war? (this ratio wasn't constant after all) Is there an analysis which explains the fluctuations in that ratio in terms of major battles, offensive/defensive tactics, weapon developments etc.?

MCW
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RobertLee
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  • "casualties", if used loosely, could mean many different things. In military parlance, a casualty is simply someone or something who can no longer fight/function. A soldier who's injured, survives, but can't fight, is a casualty. Also, more room for confusion exists in contexts like air forces. When a plane is shot down, that's an aircraft casualty regardless of whether or not the pilot survives. The aircraft itself is usually far more important, because pilots can be replaced but aircraft take much time and resources to manufacture. – DrZ214 Aug 04 '15 at 21:03
  • (continued): Same thing with tanks, naval vessels, etc. Finally, there can be a distinction between civilian and soldier casualties. If you want to include all Human casualties, the German:Soviet kill ratio is going to be very high indeed for obvious reasons. So bottom line, please clarify what you mean by casualty. – DrZ214 Aug 04 '15 at 21:06

14 Answers14

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As I understand it, the ratio of Soviet to Axis losses was something like 6 or 7 to 1 in 1941, perhaps 2 to 1 in 1942, and (close to) 1 to 1 in the latter part of the war. This includes not only German losses, but those of allies (principally Hungarians, Romanians, and Italians.) So Soviet to German totals would be higher.

The Germans got off to a strong start in the first six months with relatively few casualties. If they had continued at that pace, they would have won the war. In 1942, the casualty rates of about 2 to 1 represented a rough equilibrium, of Soviet vs. Axis forces. After that, the Soviet loss rate, approaching 1 to 1, was less than their preponderance of manpower, which is why they ultimately won.

In 1941, the Germans had the advantages of surprise, preparedness, superior tactical doctrine. In 1942, the Germans had lost the first two advantages, but their superior doctrine made the difference. By 1943, the Soviet forces had caught up, in some cases overtaken the Germans in quality of equipment, and doctrine, to a sufficient degree to be able to win with a 2- to -1 numerical advantage, like Grant and the North against Robert E. Lee and the South in 1864-5.

(Only the effect of being on the defensive allowed the Germans to inflict losses as slightly greater than a 1-1 rate.)

Editorial note: I inserted the bold-faced text in the above paragraph in response to another answer below regarding historian Trevor Nevitt Depuy's study on the relative combat effectiveness of the Soviet and German armies. Within its scope, that answer appears to be substantially correct (due to the Soviets' numerical advantage), without being inconsistent with my (revised) answer.

Example: The Soviets start with 10 million men against 5 million for the Germans. Each army inflicts 1 million casualties on the other. The "ratio of losses" (per the question) is 1 to 1, but the Germans have a 2 to 1 advantage in combat effectiveness because they inflicted the same 1 million casualties using half as many men. If the ratio of Soviet to German losses were 1.25 million to 1.00 million (slightly more than 1 to 1), the ratio of German to Soviet combat effectiveness would be 2.50 to 1, in line with DePuy's calculations.

Tom Au
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  • If it was as you say it, then the total ratio for the whole war would not approach 10 to 8 million ratio as it was actually. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 18:15
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    Anixx: Soviet casualties were closer to 20 million, at least according to this source. http://www.goodreads.com/book/show/414302.A_War_to_Be_Won – Tom Au Jan 30 '12 at 18:35
  • That is total losses, including civilians. Under Khrushchev the total number of demographic losses was estimated 26 million. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 19:02
  • And that figure includes dead due to deceases, under bombs, exterminated by the Nazis, dead of hunger and possibly even unborn children. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 19:04
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    The official figure of army losses declassified in 1993 according the Russian ministry of defense is even smaller: 8 860 400 of total losses, of which killed in action 5 226 800, dead in hospitals due to injury 1 102 800, dead of other causes or shot 555 500. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 19:10
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    @Anixx: I'll accept those figures as reasonably accurate for deaths. The casualty figures I'm using (on both sides) includes wounded, that is "losses." That would change the absolute numbers a lot, but probably not the ratios. "Dead to dead," it might be 8 million Soviets, three million Axis. – Tom Au Jan 30 '12 at 19:34
  • This figure includes not only dead but also captured as POWs. Regarding your claim about 3 million of German casualties, it may be true only if only Wehrmacht casualties are counted (without Waffen SS and German allies) and without counting captured. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 19:59
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    It is thought that Germany lost 3 605 000 without counting captured and 442 000 dead POWs, together with the allies the figure thought to be 4 273 000 without captured and 580 000 dead in capture. These figures do not count those POWs who returned from Soviet capture after the war, naval casualties and other (non-eastern) theaters of the war. – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 20:09
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    @Anixx "Offical" Soviet numbers aren't very accurate. They likely don't include various civilians impressed into service (aka People's Militia), partisans, convicts, paramilitary forces like interior ministry troops/police and others. In Leningrad the Soviets pressed men as old as 80 into service. – duffbeer703 Jan 30 '12 at 20:23
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    They definitely do not include partisans, but also definitely include people's militia, convicts and interior troops. By the way, regarding German casualties it is essentially impossible to make any estimations for 1945, at that time they has no statistics and the whole armies were surrendering (whether or not it is fair to count surrendering armies of a capitulating state as "casualties" is another question). – Anixx Jan 30 '12 at 20:29
  • @Anixx: I think it is fair to conclude that roughly through December 1944 the German people generally believed that a Frederick the Great miracle (1762) was still achievable; and that even this faint hope for survival had disappeared by early 1945. By that point most German soldiers were more interested in how to get appointed to the Western Front than on how to achieve their military objectives. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 26 '13 at 18:22
  • @TomAu: That's better; un-down-voted. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 26 '13 at 18:24
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    @Anixx: The Soviets had their military historians and statisticians assessing their losses. They are not per se more unreliable. – jjack May 31 '15 at 16:54
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The Red Army was not an effective fighting force in the beginning, for many reasons. (Including the fact that Stalin had just slaughtered the officer corps) The early days of the war were largely a one-sided affair, where the German Army's biggest challenge was dealing with tens or hundreds of thousands of surrendering Soviet troops. As time progressed, the Soviets regrouped and pushed back.

The Russian front was a massive conflict. Leningrad was under siege for nearly 3 years. The Battle of Stalingrad grinded on for months and killed over 2 million. Kursk was an epic battle the was the turning point of the war. From that point forward, the Germans were on the defensive, and engaged in a long battle of attrition, all of the way back to Berlin.

I've never seen an accounting for casualties in a ratio form. There is plenty of data to calculate your own -- over 30 million were killed in this front of the war.

duffbeer703
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The vast majority of German soldiers were killed, taken POW or otherwise incapacitated on the Eastern front. The Soviet to Axis loss ratio was 1.3:1 and the USSR outproduced Germany in every weapons system throughout the war.

According to meticulous post-Soviet archival work (G. I. Krivosheev in Soviet Casualties and Combat Losses), the total number of men (and in the Soviet case, about 1mn women) who passed through the armed forces of the USSR was 34,476,700 and through Germany's was 21,107,000. Of these, the "irrevocable losses" (the number of soldiers who were killed in military action, went MIA, became POWs and died of non-combat causes) was 11,285,057 for the USSR, 6,231,700 for Germany, 6,923,700 for Germany and its occupied territories, and 8,649,500 for all the Axis forces on the Eastern Front. Thus, the total ratio of Soviet to Nazi military losses was 1.3:1.

Also, out of 5.2 million prisoners taken by Axis on Eastern Front 3.6 million died, and out of 5.4 million of Axis prisoners taken by Soviets only 824 thousand died, which also affects the total numbers of casualties. Axis' losses estimates were slacking in 1945 as power of Axis war machine was focused on keeping Soviets out of Germany, thus 8,649,500 Axis casualties is the lowest estimate.

Tikkurila
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Who ever wrote this is wrong:

"In 1941, the Germans had the advantages of surprise, preparedness, superior tactical doctrine. In 1942, the Germans had lost the first two advantages, but their superior doctrine made the difference. By 1943, the Soviet forces had caught up, in some cases overtaken the Germans in quality of equipment, and doctrine. Only the effect of being on the defensive allowed the Germans to inflict losses as slightly greater than a 1-1 rate."

In fact according to: "Number predictions and war" by Depuy Germany remained man to man superior not just to the Western allied armies right up to the end of the war but considerably so to the USSR. Even by at Kursk Germany had a 256% fighting effectiveness advantage to the soviets, 1 German soldier was equal to 2.56 soviets in fighting ability.

By 44, this advantage had dropped to 180%, one German soldier being equal to 1.8 soviets. Depuy study is exhaustive, and just goes to show this guy above does not know what he is talking about. Oh by the way Depuy factored in the defensive advantage the Germans had, this figure is minus that advantage. So on an even field basis, 100 German were equal to 180 Soviets. The soviets won because of overwhelming numbers, Hitler's stupidity and the second front, THE USA!

Soivet battlefield losses in 44, 5,000,000. German losses 1,100,000. German losses are considerably less, obviously this guy is getting his figures from some Russian BS history book like wikipedia.

(WW2: Allies mobilized against Germany 40.4 million, Germany Mobilized 12.5 million. Allied casualties 23 million, German 10.1 Million. Score effectiveness Allied .25, German 1.84. Which means one in four Allied soldiers inflicted a casualty on the Germans, while each German averaged nearly two Allied casualties. Even after Depuy adjusted for defense posture the German score rating was 1.42. Which was five times as great as the Allies. Scource: Depuy, "Numbers Predictions & War")

Tom Au
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nick
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    I've read years ago Dupuy's encylopedia of military biography, which is great, but all this number juggling is rather fishy and seems a bit superficial... – Felix Goldberg May 11 '13 at 10:45
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    My advice is read the book, the study is very extensive and was undertaken for the department of defense. – nick May 12 '13 at 00:40
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    My advice is read the book, the study is very extensive and was undertaken for the Department of Defense. This is backed up by the fact that the Allies in nearly all their victories required a massive materiel advantage, and even then when aided by Hitler, it was still slow going and tough. This attests to a man for man advantage on the Germans part. – nick May 12 '13 at 00:48
  • @nick: Finally someone on this question with a basic understanding of the conflict. – Pieter Geerkens Oct 25 '13 at 03:31
  • @nick: Your point about DePuy's calculations on relative combat effectiveness is well taken, but it is not inconsistent with my (revised) answer, because of the Soviets' numerical superiority. The example showed how the casualty ratios could be close to 1- to -1, and the Germans have a combat effectiveness of 2 to 1 (or more), because they inflicted similar numbers of casualties using half as many men. – Tom Au Oct 26 '13 at 17:36
  • @FelixGoldberg: I consider Nick's assertions "substantially correct," but the problem was an "apples to oranges" comparison. See the example in my expanded answer for a reconciliation of the two. – Tom Au Oct 26 '13 at 17:55
  • @PieterGeerkens: See my revision and the reconciliation between my numbers and nick's in the example. As noted in a comment to the answer, my main source was http://www.goodreads.com/book/show/414302.A_War_to_Be_Won – Tom Au Oct 26 '13 at 17:58
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Nick,

In an effort to ensure your post doesn't become fodder for Nationalists and Neo-Nazis, don't confuse Dupuy's conclusions. He did not conclude that the Germans were "man for man" better but rather that their leadership was better, particularly at the NCO level right up to the General Staff level. This is the primary reason, he concludes, that the German soldier fought with a higher effectiveness than their counterparts.

It was NOT because Germans were some kind of supermen.

JLong
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    Definitely +1, although this is more of a comment than an answer. & Welcome to the site! – Felix Goldberg May 13 '13 at 07:42
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    Welcome to the site! A citation would help those of us who aren't as immersed in the evidence as you and Nick are. – MCW May 13 '13 at 10:38
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    Part of the German advantage can possibly be attributed to this concept of handling combat: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mission-type_tactics. And when looking at the total ratio of military losses, one has to consider that Germany was on the defensive for most of the war, which is considered an advantage. – jjack May 31 '15 at 16:44
  • No I don't agree with that. While the Axis did fight a defensive war half the time, fighting a defensive war was not (clearly) advantageous. As shown, the Axis forces had better 'ratio's' the first 2 years than the 2nd two years, but also the entire conquest of France/Belgium/Netherlands shows the efficiency of offensive maneuvering in ww2. Having the initiative gave the ability to maneuver, create positions of numerical superiority and/or encircle (POW count as casualties). Only really well defend-able positions (Kreta and Normandy come to mind) gave an outsized advantage to defense. – vdMandele Oct 03 '18 at 20:26
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The whole military losses of Germans was about 4.5 millions.

Old data for official military losses of SU - about 6.8 millions KIA + 0.5 mil died + 4.5 mln captives.

The last data appeared in 2017. According to "Undying Regiment" data taken from the State Planning Committee now opened, the total number of lost people in the USSR in 41-45 was 52 mil. The natural number would be about 10 mil. So, the number of losses was counted as 42,000,000 people. Here are ALL losses, due to hunger, illnesses due to malnutrition, KIA, civilians killed, died in camps and other reasons. Of these, military losses consisted about 19 mil. These data is somewhat half-official now.

During the first three months the Soviet losses were about a million/month. They surrendered, because mostly they hated the SU. Many of them even wanted to fight against the SU. But Hitler refused to use them and they were all annihilated. Even Himmler was against such wastes.

Very interesting period was also during the 1942 spring-summer advance of Germans. There raised an anticommunist rebellion in the eastern Ukraina and Cossacks regions of Russia. So, the SU troops escaped before the advance of Germans. Almost no losses on the both sides, only captives...

Gangnus
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    "They surrendered, because they wanted to fight against the SU." - LOL. You made my day. Did you read it in some writing by Goebbels? – Anixx Feb 01 '12 at 12:45
  • No, by info from my grandfather and other Russian veterans I knew. As for Goebbels, you apparently haven't thought enough - who wold admit that he killed people who wanted to fight on their side? That would totally destroy they theory of inferior Slavs and the very theoretical base of the war. And your mai source was apparently Zhukov? Who changed the version 7 times?Really, honest author. – Gangnus Feb 01 '12 at 13:54
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    So your grandfather surrendered, enlisted in a pro-Nazi unit and fought for Wehrmacht, then after the war emigrated to Canada to not be punished for treason? Then it is not that surprising what he says to whitewash himself. 60% of the Soviet POWs died of hunger in Germany and preferred not to become the traitors despite the SS visitors compelled them to enlist and save themselves of a certain death of hunger. – Anixx Feb 01 '12 at 14:24
  • @Anixx - even Soviet propaganda admitted those existed. Vlasov was a well known example even back when they taught history in Soviet schools. – DVK Feb 01 '12 at 15:25
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    Well even Vlasov did not surrender to fight against the USSR. He surrendered because he had no choice and was encircled and then he was persuaded to organise anti-Soviet units. Of course people who wanted to fight against the USSR existed, but of course not the majority of the surrendered as Gangnus claims. – Anixx Feb 01 '12 at 15:50
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    @Anixx right about Vlasov personally. As about absolute majority, it was from village. And hated the soviet power for "collective farms". They expected Hitler to cancel "kolchozes". He refused... And had the same people reaction as Napoleon with slavery in 1812. About people fighting against communism, read Shambarov. Very interesting. – Gangnus Feb 01 '12 at 16:39
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    Gangnus, well this is perhaps a perspective from your grandfather's village where people hated the USSR (was it a Russian village by the way?). My grandfather told me different things. Indeed many people surrendered in the beginning of the war, but not because they wanted to fight against their motherland, but either because they thought that the USSR will loose the war or to save themselves in difficult circumstances. They also thought they will be treated humanely as the Germans did during WWI. Once the people learned what the Germans did to the POWs the number of surrenders decreased a lot. – Anixx Feb 01 '12 at 20:50
  • "fight against their motherland" - you imply that communism, and stalinism in particular, was a bearable system for the majority of Soviet citizens? Even in the early days of Barbarossa did the NKVD pull off stuff that would make the average Wehrmacht soldier believe they were fighting the devil itself - read some description of how the massacres in NKVD prisons were conducted before Germans approached. The point is - it was entirely justified for Soviet soldiers to change sides, at least before they realized Hitler's plans. Calling it "treason" feels wrong. – RobertLee Feb 01 '12 at 21:28
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    @RobertLee. Yes. In 1987 in Lvov I have spoken with one old man, who was "taken" at the start of the war in the western Ukraine, as all men with high (not higher!) education. All of them were shot in the cells. He escaped because he fall and lied under the dead bodies - for three days. NKVD heroes didn't have time to check their work. He wept as a child when he told about this - 46 years after the thing happened! Normally Ukrainians didn't spoke with Russians o such themes, but I participated in Chernobyl liquidation and they took me as one of themselves after it. – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 08:10
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    @Anixx Yes, it was a village from Uljanovsk region. Old enough Russian territory. And my grandfather personally fought honestly, because these starting months he was in these regiments that stood against Japan and was moved to the western front only in the autumn, when it was known, that nazi don't cancel the kolchozes and are even more cruel than communists. – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 08:21
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    @Anixx The grandfather spoke on this theme very reluctantly. It is very hard for a strong man to acknowledge that he lived all his life under a power he did not respected even a little bit and did nothing against it. And try to explain "the objective and personal reasons" of your "cowardice" to a young lad. Maybe that is the reason you have heard what you have heard. – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 08:23
  • "you imply that communism, and stalinism in particular, was a bearable system for the majority of Soviet citizens?" - RobertLee, communism, and personally Stalin were supported by the total majority of the citizens. You possibly do not know how people cried en masse when Stalin died, as if he was their most close relative. – Anixx Feb 02 '12 at 09:03
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    Not supported, but tolerated and feared of. Because millions deaths on the Citizen War were enough. And there was no good alternative. (The czar's empire was not a most sympathetic state, too.) And the people rebellions were simply slaughter off by battle gases, as in Tambov region. And when the Germans came, people (naively, of course) thought that the change to the better finally may come. – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 09:13
  • Gangnus. Read again what I wrote. People cried en masse when Stalin died. Teachers came to classes in tears, people walked the streets in tears many people even dies in the funeral due to crowd pressure. – Anixx Feb 02 '12 at 09:24
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    So what? People were crying in N.Korea now, too. Eating bark from the trees because of hunger and crying for a good chief, because the next one could be worse. The second reason was: they were expected to cry. So they had to. When 4 years later Staliv was taken from the Mausoleum and criticized, only Georgians protested. The love was too short, eh? – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 09:27
  • And Tambov rebellion is completely irrelevant because it was an episode of the civil war, before the soviet power became strong, the rebellion happened in response of forced confiscation of grain for the military, a practice which was never repeated after the civil war, the organizers of the rebellion were socialist-revolutionaries, a party that positioned themselves as even more left alternative to bolsheviks. By 1940s the entire new generation has grown, the state leadership changed and even the man who used gases in Tambov was shot exactly for that. – Anixx Feb 02 '12 at 09:31
  • "The second reason was: they were expected to cry." - LOL the people cried of course sincere. "When 4 years later Stalin was taken from the Mausoleum and criticized, only Georgians protested." this is because the people generally did not question what the party did and it was exposed to them what "mistakes" Stalin did. – Anixx Feb 02 '12 at 09:36
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    Oh, yes, so I could feel free to rebel, no gases now? Only the whole family to different camps for a word against the state? How humanic! And about the grain not taken by army, explain it to millions of dead because of the hunger organized (admitted by Molotov) in Ukraine and Cossack regions in 30-ties. – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 09:41
  • My point is that the people generally very much supported both Stalin and the party. The only Soviet leader which was not supported by the masses was Gorbachev, much later. If the people support the government, there is no need to rebel. If you contest this simple fact, that Stalin and the communists were supported and popular, let's discuss it separately. Regerding hunger you possibly do not know that in 1930s hunger was not only in the USSR but also in Romania. – Anixx Feb 02 '12 at 11:21
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    People did not like Gorbi when he started with love to Stalin and forbade vodka, or when he revealed himself as weak against old communists, but between these times there were hundreds thousands demonstrations, on which people ask him to move further. You obviously speak about things that are absolutely unknown for you. And refuse to use any logic. Interesting, why? – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 12:41
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    As for older times, obviously, people so loved that power that it couldn't stand without camps and KGB. Are you one of Putin's bloggers? – Gangnus Feb 02 '12 at 12:43
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    If you wish to keep commenting on this answer, please use Chat that is what it is for. Locking for the extended commentary. – MichaelF Feb 02 '12 at 12:47
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The casualties figures are confusing. At the end of day, you will find the casualties numbers from USSR are more accurate than the ones from Germany. The total casualties for German Army stood at 5.3 million. It has adjusted from 3 million, to 4 million, and now to 5.3 million, which 4/5 are dead from eastern front. It was confirmed with numbers provided by the USSR earlier. USSR casualties are 8.8 million including over 1 million death of POWS. If have to include German Allies casualties for a comparison, that is another 1 million. So total military casualties are USSR 8.8 million VS Axis 6.3 million

user3442
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The term: "man for man" is that they achieved a better result on a per capita basis. However there is an interesting study mentioned in the book: "Blizkreig" by Len Deighton, of fighting in North Africa. Which showned that the Germans improvised better than their opposition and fought better when they lost their leadership and NCO's.

From Depuy's book:

"this suggests that part of the overall German superiority probably resulted from better utilization of manpower. The remainder could possibly be the result of such factors as more experience, greater mobility, better doctrine, more effective drill, superior leadership, or inherent national characteristics"

( source: page 63, Numbers, Predictions & War)

So it is probably very complex, involving many factors.

nick
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When following both German (eastern front) and Soviet official loss figures 22th June 1941 to 31 Decemberg 1944 we will get these figures:

Total German losses: 5 790 459 killed, wounded, missing
Total Soviet losses: 26 579 242 killed, wounded, missing

Loss rate: 1:4,59

(nobody knows what were German loss figures during last four months of 1945, official Soviet losses were 3 013 507)

E.g historian David Glantz have estimated that 14.7 million Soviet soldiers and partisans died while official Soviet loss figures are giving some 10 million military deaths)

Note: population rate between Greater Germany and Soviet Union was only about 1:2 favoring Soviet Union (84 million vs. 168-170 million based on most reliable estimates of population of both powers in 1939). Before the war there were estimated 10 million ethnic Germans living outside the Reich. Hundreds of thousands of those "Germanics" served either in Wehrmacht, Waffen SS or Luftwaffe. The man pool of Greater Germany was much bigger than historians tend to estimate.

http://ww2stats.com/

Markus
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The problem with many of the figures above are some talk German losses and others talk AXIS. A big mistake made in the Wests. Russians do not make that mistake. They know there were plenty of AXIS units from occupied Europe and from Italy and Hungary etc. One estimate I saw put those who fought on the Eastern Front for the AXIS as 2 Germans to 1 from another nations. Russians who have not been brainwashed like US understand they were fighting the AXIS. Not just Germany. There were without offending Western sensibilities may Army Units from occupied areas. Especially so regarding the SS. Hitler by about 1942/1943 could not find enough criminal types in Germany to undertake the the dirty work done by the SS. Many experts - especially Russian experts estimate as the war progressed the SS in general only comprised about 40% German. As you would expect not many Nations in occupied areas after the War were going to put up there hands and say some of the most vicious SS units came from our country. To ever get a good comparison the losses of the other AXIS nations on the Eastern front need to be factored in. Very difficult. Today most Russians feel closer to Germans than many other cultures because they understand this. All you can say reliably is at the beginning the USSR/AXIS loss rate was very high. By 1942/1943 with better leadership and better equipment it came down. Naturally of course the USSR was at a disadvantage taking back well defended occupied Cities etc. as they fought there way back to Berlin. Always the case. The army attacking highly defended areas usually takes greater losses than the defenders. Yes overall the USSR did lose more than the AXIS but nothing like Cold War propaganda in the West has tried to made out. They probably by the end had even reversed it all to there advantage thanks to there experienced hardened troops and equal if not better equipment coming up against new raw recruits with lesser equipment. You will never get the true figures. Better for many nations still to maintain the myth all there people stayed loyal and blame it all on the Germany. 5th Generation Australian.

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    Welcome to [history.se] @Ross. Please answer the question, rather than comment on other answers. The idea is that the best answer rises to the top. Formatting will aid readability, and providing references or links to sources will aid credibility. – andy256 May 31 '15 at 11:32
  • Interesting opinion; but really just a long-winded comment rather than an actual attempt to answer the question. – Pieter Geerkens Jun 03 '15 at 03:44
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The official figure of army losses declassified in 1993 according the Russian ministry of defense are: 8 860 400 of total losses, of which killed in action 5 226 800, dead in hospitals due to injury 1 102 800, dead of other causes or shot 555 500.

It is thought that Germany lost 3 605 000 without counting captured and 442 000 dead POWs, together with the allies the figure thought to be 4 273 000 without captured and 580 000 dead in capture. These figures do not count those POWs who returned from Soviet capture after the war, naval casualties and other (non-eastern) theaters of the war.

Regarding German casualties it is essentially impossible to make any estimations for 1945, at that time they has no statistics and the whole armies were surrendering (whether or not it is fair to count surrendering armies of a capitulating state as "casualties" is another question)

Anixx
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Soviet military war dead is now estimated at between 27-35 million. So somewhere between 9 and 10 to one in favour of the Germans.

-2

This is propaganda germans have clearly won.

The war the Germans won over all their enemies problem is that they were attacked from all sides. The Germans totally destroyed Russia — but in Russia it was the winter, not the Russian army, that destroyed the German supply of ammo, etc.

Just like Napoleon destroyed Russia but then the Russians burned down Moscow and waited in the back of Russia then the winter killed the French army.

New Alexandria
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    This answer would be greatly improved by both punctuation and research. Can you provide any evidence to support your assertions? – MCW Oct 24 '13 at 15:50
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    Very poor answer - it sounds like it describes a game of Sid Meyer's Civilization and not actually history. (-1) – Felix Goldberg Oct 26 '13 at 18:12
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An interesting question. At the end of the day, it depends on who you ask: the idealogues or the historians. If you are talking about the purely military casualties, then:

According to the nazi sympathisers , it was 30mn Russians against 3mn Germans or whatever they're talking about. The problem is that due to the cold war, the German generals were sadly allowed to write the history of the eastern front in the fight against communism.

According to actual statisticians & historians who have worked on genuine military records (ref Overmans and Krivocheev), it were 4,2mn Germans and about 1mn Axis allies dead against 8mn Soviets. This does however misrepresent the casualties a bit, as it includes dead POWS and the Germans (in particular) had a habit of mass-murdering any Soviet POWs they found, and the Soviets weren't completely innocent either.

So something around 1.3 or so in total does seem reasonable, with the ratio going from well above that at the start, to below 1 towards the end of the war.

ARIMA
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  • This answer would benefit from sources. – MCW May 19 '17 at 09:26
  • Someone got his numbers mixed up. "30mn Russians" sounds close to the 27 million overall Soviet deaths (including civilians), while "8mn Soviets" sounds close to the 8-12 million military Soviet deaths... – DevSolar May 19 '17 at 11:45
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    Besides, this doesn't answer the question, which was explicitly asking about the different stages of the war. – DevSolar May 19 '17 at 11:50
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    I did give my sources (Overmans + Krivocheev), and no, I didn't get any numbers mixed up. I was merely reflecting over all the neo nazis who think the Red Army took 14mn or 30mn or whatever casualties against some deflated number of German casualties. – ARIMA May 19 '17 at 15:41