Exodus 12:36
Comparing some different translations of this passage, half them read like "God made all the Egyptians like/be magically charmed by/look favorably upon the Israelites so much, that they gave them everything, like a D&D charm spell."
But others (eg KJV) seem to say something more like "God's very clear and apparent favoring of the Israelites during the recent plagues, where all Egypt could see, made the Egyptians fear/respect the Israelites so much, they gave them everything needed to get rid of them and avoid more punishments."
This KJV interpretation just makes more logical sense to me, in the context of Exodus, but those in the other camp are more modern, and seem very clear in their phrasing.
"God's visible favor cowed the Egyptians" interpretation:
- KJV: And the LORD gave the people favour in the sight of the Egyptians, so that they lent unto them such things as they required. And they spoiled the Egyptians.
- NASB: and the Lord had given the people favor in the sight of the Egyptians, so that they let them have their request. Therefore they plundered the Egyptians.
- ESV: And the LORD had given the people favor in the sight of the Egyptians, so that they let them have what they asked. Thus they plundered the Egyptians.
"God made the Egyptians adore the Israelites" interpretation:
- NIV: The LORD had made the Egyptians favorably disposed toward the people, and they gave them what they asked for; so they plundered the Egyptians.
- CSB: And the Lord gave the people such favor with the Egyptians that they gave them what they requested. In this way they plundered the Egyptians.
- NLT: The Lord caused the Egyptians to look favorably on the Israelites, and they gave the Israelites whatever they asked for. So they stripped the Egyptians of their wealth!
I don't know enough to tell whether the Hebrew means one or the other, but a look at https://biblehub.com/text/exodus/12-36.htm suggests that it depends on the interpretation of "בְּעֵינֵ֥י" - "in the sight".
I guess it could be ambiguous, but without knowing the language, I can't guess which was intended.
So my question: which of these interpretations is the more widely accepted? (bonus points for any pointers to where I could find out more)
