I need some help interpreting a scripture correctly. I'll state my question first, but read my quotation after to understand the direction of it. Does Psalm 5:5 indicate that God hates sinners? Romans 3:23 says that, "all have sinned" which, if the premise is true, would mean God has hated us all. Do we all count as "all workers of iniquity"?
Psalm 5:4-6 NKJV
4 For You are not a God who takes pleasure in wickedness, Nor shall evil dwell with You. 5 The boastful shall not stand in Your sight; You hate all workers of iniquity. 6 You shall destroy those who speak falsehood; The Lord abhors the bloodthirsty and deceitful man.
Let me quote from Defending Inerrancy:
There is no contradiction in these statements. The difficulty arises when we wrongly assume that God hates in the same way men hate. Hatred in human beings is generally thought of in terms of strong emotional distaste or dislike for someone or something. However, in God, hate is a judicial act on the part of the righteous Judge who separates the sinner from Himself. This is not contradictory to God’s love, for in His love for sinners, God has made it possible for sin to be forgiven so that all can be reconciled to God. Ultimately, the sinner will reap the harvest of God’s hatred in eternal separation from God, or the harvest of God’s love by being with Him for all eternity. But, God is “not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance” (2 Peter 3:9). God’s justice demands that sin be punished. God’s love carried that punishment for every man in the person of His Son (2 Cor. 5:21).
Even if I agree with this quotation, it would still mean that God "hates" everyone who is a sinner (though He also loves them!). Is this interpretation correct?