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James 1:5, 7

5 If any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask God, who gives generously to all without reproach, and it will be given him.

7 For that person must not suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord;

Using Greek and contextual clues does Lord in James 1:7 refer to God in James 1:5. No matter what take we have for the moment of what Lord or God means doctrinally. This is a companion to my previous question but it does not tie itself to James 1:1 for the moment.

agarza
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JosephDoggie
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1 Answers1

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James 1:5-7

5 If any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask God, who gives generously to all without reproach, and it will be given him. 6 But let him ask in faith, with no doubting, for the one who doubts is like a wave of the sea that is driven and tossed by the wind. 7 For that person must not suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord;

It seems clear here that "him" in James 1:6 is asking "God" from James 1:5.

In James 1:7, "that person" must be one of the "him"s who are asking in faith from James 1:6. So context seems to indicate that the Lord from James 1:7 is the same as God from James 1:5

agarza
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JosephDoggie
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    @agarza thanks for the editing help. – JosephDoggie Jan 27 '24 at 19:29
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    If you are asking whether the reference to God in verse 5 is the same being as the Lord in vs. 7, Paul refers to God as the Father, and the Lord as Jesus Christ the Son. (I Thes. 1:1, Eph. 1:1) That's typically what is meant in the New Testament by other writers also, see Hebr. 1:1-2. – Joanne Jan 27 '24 at 23:39