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Matthew 24 can be interpreted as a short-term prophecy for the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple culminating in 70 CE. time in Judea. However, some of the language used sounds like a description of the end times. The beginning of Matthew 24, points to the historical destruction of the Temple in 70 CE as described in Matthew 24:1,2 (ESV):

Jesus left the temple and was going away, when his disciples came to point out to him the buildings of the temple. But he answered them, “You see all these, do you not? Truly, I say to you, there will not be left here one stone upon another that will not be thrown down.”

Hermeneutics depends heavily on context, which is supplied in Matthew 24:3 (ESV):

As he sat on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to him privately, saying, “Tell us, when will these things be, and what will be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?”

There are three questions posed by the disciples and Jesus seems to focus on end time events and warnings. However, it seems like a lot depends on the interpretation of the word, generation, in Matthew 24:34,35 (ESV) when Jesus said,

Truly, I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place. Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.

I don't see how it's possible of an end-time description when Christ said "this generation shall not pass till ALL these things be fulfilled." What did Jesus mean by the word, generation? Possibilities include

  1. The generation of those who were hearing his words.
  2. The existence of the Jews, the victims of repeated genocidal events.
  3. The generation of the people living when the end-times begins, perhaps 1948.
  4. Some other interpretation of the word, generation, based on sound hermeneutical principles and methods rather than someones favorite doctrinal position.

Any educated input would be much appreciated.

Dieter
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  • This is a question seeking speculation. It's out of the scope for hermeneutics and would likely be a better question in another place like Christianity SE. – Micah Gafford Jan 23 '24 at 03:24
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    Many many interpreters believe that Matt 24 applies to the destruction of Jerusalem AND the end of time, the latter especially to V26-31. – Dottard Jan 23 '24 at 03:56
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    I know of no data to suggest Christ appeared in 66 AD – Dottard Jan 23 '24 at 04:00
  • Lastly, the "final generation" follows the great tribulation which comes at end times. I see no problem here. – Dottard Jan 23 '24 at 04:00
  • Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the [tour] to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. I also recommend going through the Help Center's sections on both asking and answering questions. – agarza Jan 23 '24 at 04:31
  • Welcome to Hermeneutics! Could you please 1. provide some kind of link to the 66 appearance you mention so that we corrborate it with evidence and know specifically what you refer to and 2. narrow this to understanding of a specific Bible verse in a "what does this verse/text" mean question. If you can't cite a specific Bible verse, then we should move this to a question about eschatology on Christianity.SE, but that would still need some kind of link to reference the event you describe in 66 AD. – Jesse Jan 23 '24 at 13:43
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    In Gina's and my linked answers, which I reference in comments to her below, you should now have more than enough to go on. We both even reference, albeit indirectly, 66 AD, but nevertheless differ on much. Good Q. + 1. – Olde English Jan 23 '24 at 21:28
  • @OldeEnglish I want to edit this to help the new OP, but I can't find any direct link or citation about Jesus being seen in 66 AD. Is there any? – Jesse Jan 26 '24 at 16:33
  • @Jesse - You should probably be asking this of Gina, the full preterist, in this back and forth. Nevertheless, as to be noted in my "linked" answer, made reference to in my comments to Gina, in which I quote Benson's commentary, regarding Daniel 12:1,2, and where we should note that Benson identifies Michael with Jesus and insinuates that Michael/Jesus is standing up for his people at the time of their greatest distress, i.e. at the time of the "First Jewish/Roman War", which began in 66 AD and did not end until 73 AD, the climax of which was of course 70 AD, an end time in it's self. – Olde English Jan 27 '24 at 01:08
  • @OldeEnglish Okay, thank you. That answers my question. Feel free to follow up in comments or flags. – Jesse Jan 27 '24 at 03:51
  • I don't see a clear link anywhere to the claim from the OP. This does not replace the need for citation: I would ask those ignorant of the AD 66 appearance to not partake in this discussion until further self-educated on this topic. Please provide a quote of some kind, plus either a link or named reference to where this idea exists somewhere else. I'm really looking forward to seeing where I and everyone else can read more about that. Until then, this question needs to be closed merely because of the need for citing sources. – Jesse Jan 27 '24 at 03:55
  • There might also be a possibility that Matthew 24 was purposely ambiguous (gasp).

    This ambiguity would allow Daniel's 70 week prophecy to be fulfilled with the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple predicated on the Jewish national acceptance of Yeshua as Messiah OR a hiatus of the gentile "church age" predicated on the Jewish national rejection of Yeshua as Messiah.

    I'm not advocating this as my own position, but rather as a third alternative to the interpretation of Matthew 24.

    – Dieter Feb 10 '24 at 01:48
  • Both Destruction of Jerusalem and End Times The Olivet Discourse deals with both topics IF we include chapter 25 in our study. The Olivet Disc. does not end with chapter 24. And the confusion is cleared up when the Transition verses that Jesus mentioned, are given full weight. (24:34, 35). - - - Understanding comes when we consider (1) The Hebrew audience addressed. These were Hebrews familiar with the Hebrew language, not Shakespearian soliloquies, not modern Klingon lingo. (2) The use of Old Test. metaphors about the sun, moon, stars, etc. This imagery has no reference to ... – ray grant Feb 18 '24 at 23:04
  • ...modern scientific meteorology! It merely pictures the Fall of a nation or its government. (Ez. 32:7,8 Isa. 24:23 Jer. 4:28 Amos 5:8. (3) Giving full weight to Jesus's chronological limitations: this generation. Most mis interp. this by referring to the wrong Gk. word. "Genea" refers to chronology of time; BUT another word not used is similar but different, referring to a group of people. (4) Consider the "transition verses" (24:34,35), AND the difference in vocabulary in each section: (e.g. "signs" vs "no signs" "warning" vs "no warning" "trib" vs "normal times".) (5) "Comings" of God ... – ray grant Feb 18 '24 at 23:13
  • ...used in the Bible. Jesus "coming" in Judgment on Temple is similar to "comings" in the O.T. (Micah 1:3, Zech. 9:14) They do not refer to End times of world. and (6) The use of "End" by Disciples (Gk. syntelias) and changed by Jesus (Gk. "telos") What Jesus warned about was THE END of Judaism Era in that generation (30-70), but the "Complete End of the world" the Disciples thought about, was different; it was to be as chapter 25 showed. - - - Considering all these, the Olivet Discourse is easy to comprehend, especially when the subsequent history proved it out to the letter (67-70 A.D.) – ray grant Feb 18 '24 at 23:22

2 Answers2

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Here is a selection of prophecies that have dual application (there are others.)

  1. Matt 24:3 - While Jesus was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately. “Tell us,” they said, “when will (a) these things happen, and (b) what will be the sign of Your coming and of the end of the age?” Thus, Jesus combined the destruction of Jerusalem with the end of the world when He would return. This includes the “abomination of desolation”.
  2. Isa 7:14 - Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call Him Immanuel. This was a prophecy about Isaiah's wife but was also applied to Mary and Jesus as per Matt 1:23.
  3. Joel 2:28-32 is an example of a prophecy that was fulfilled at Pentecost in Acts 2 but which appears to be capable of eschatological fulfillment again in the period before Jesus returns
  4. Hos 10:8 is about the wicked asking to be destroyed by rocks and mountains is a prophecy about the destruction of Jerusalem; but it also receives a dual application by Rev 6:15-17 at the end of time when Jesus returns.
  5. The prophecy about Gog and Magog in Eze 38 concerns the punishment meted out to these pagan nations in OT times. However, it is given a second impetus in Rev 20:8 in the time after the 1000 years.
  6. Mal 4:5 predicts the arrival of Elijah the prophet before the “Day of the Lord” and the NT claims fulfilment in places like Matt 11:13, 14, 17:11-14, Mark 9:12, 13, Luke 1:17 as John the Baptist. However, the “great and terrible day of the Lord” (Mal 4:5) clearly also has eschatological fulfilment and confirmed by the indirect allusions to Elijah in the book of Revelation.
  7. Ps 22 is about the loneliness and isolation of David as were many of his psalms. However, it has been correctly understood by many, including Jesus Himself, as Messianic, as conformed by Matt 27:43, 46, Mark 15:34. Many Jewish interpreters also understood this Psalm as messianic.

Note that in all of these cases (this is not an exhaustive list), the second application can only be claimed where such is explicit in the Bible text itself and NOT simply due to the over-active imagination of the exegete.

Thus, IMHO, Matt 24 applies (not necessarily in its entirety) to BOTH the destruction of Jerusalem AND the second advent of Christ.

Dottard
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  • Well, but... have you not considered Matt. 11:13? ..."all the prophets and the law till John did prophesy" ALL, not some of them.. ALL of them. The plenary, or dual prophesies were of the OT Messianic prophesies. And, Jesus said they were ALL until John. IOW, John's ministry clearing the path for Jesus was the time the dual prophesies were to be fulfilled. What is it you want Jesus to do in a future coming that He has not already done? Are you waiting for a 3rd destruction of Jerusalem? – Gina Jan 26 '24 at 13:50
  • Further the time and place of the Gog of Magog prophesy from Ezek. was the same lands of the old Persian empire which Rome ruled in the 1st century AD. Proved from the scriptures and old world maps here: https://shreddingtheveil.org/2020/02/21/ezekiel-in-revelation-part-v-the-time-of-gog-of-magog/ and here: https://shreddingtheveil.org/2020/03/29/ezekiel-in-revelation-part-vi-the-land-of-gog/ and here: https://shreddingtheveil.org/2020/07/11/ezekiel-in-revelation-part-vii-who-was-gog/ – Gina Jan 26 '24 at 13:55
  • Excellent portrayal of double prophecy. + 1. The (Full) Preterist argument only holds up if the book of Revelation was written prior to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD but there is way too much evidence to the contrary. It had to have been written within the time of the Emperor Domitian, see:- https://www.evidenceunseen.com/bible-difficulties-2/nt-difficulties/jude/date-of-revelation/ Consequently, Revelation was most likely written circa 95 AD. The fact that Nero was born Lucius Domitius Ahenobarbus has to be of no consequence, for a 60's dating. – Olde English Jan 27 '24 at 07:19
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The first Roman-Jewish war that lasted from about Feb/Mar AD 66 to Sep/Oct AD 70 was the last 3-1/2 years of the last year, or 70th “week” of Daniel’s prophesy of the end of the desolations of Jerusalem in Dan. 9:24.

`Seventy weeks are determined for thy people, and for thy holy city, to shut up the transgression, and to seal up sins, and to cover iniquity, and to bring in righteousness age-during, and to seal up vision and prophet, and to anoint the holy of holies. (YLT)

This prophesy was specifically for Daniel’s people and Daniel’s holy city, the Judahites (Jews), and indeed all of scattered Israel, and Jerusalem. It did not extend beyond Judah, Jerusalem, and the Jews. Therefore, this prophesy does not involve an end to the entire physical cosmos. It is time limited and place limited to Jerusalem.

The meaning of “shabua” (Strong's Heb 7620) is a period of seven, a heptad; and the context determines whether that period of seven is speaking of days, or weeks, or years.

Daniel had been reading the book of Jeremiah and came across the 70 years prophesied in Jer. 25:12 and 29:10 for the return of his people from Babylon to rebuild their city Jerusalem. Therefore, the seventy periods of sevens of Dan. 9:24 is seventy sevens of years, or 490 years.

It is broken down in vs. 25-27 to be 7 sevens of years, or 49 years to the beginning of the re-building of the broad place and ramparts, or laying out the square and palisades which are described in Ezra, Nehemiah and Malachi; and then 62 sevens, or 483 years to the coming of the Messiah. The last week of seven, or the last seven years is divided into two periods of 3-1/2 years by the cutting off in the midst of that last seven years of the Messiah. That cutting off is a defining point.

And he hath strengthened a covenant with many -- one week, and [in] the midst of the week he causeth sacrifice and present to cease, and by the wing of abominations he is making desolate, even till the consummation, and that which is determined is poured on the desolate one.' (Dan. 9:27, YLT)

Yeshua was cut off at His crucifixion in AD 30-31. That was the end of His 3-1/2 year ministry on earth when He confirmed the covenant, the gospel of Christ, with many. That leaves the last half of the last “week,” the last 3-1/2 years still ahead of them for the end of the desolations of Jerusalem, “the desolate one.” which happened at the destruction of that city and the temple at the hands of the Romans in AD 70.

There was a 40 year gap (40 – gestation, pregnancy to delivery and birth) where the broadcast or probate of the new testament of Christ had to be read throughout all of those occupied lands, inhabited lands “oikoumene” (Strong's Gr. 3625) which were the lands and nations and peoples ruled by the ancient Roman empire. (The use of the word “world” in many translations is incorrect.) This 40 year period was the transition from the old covenant to the new covenant and mirrored the exodus from the slavery under Egypt.

Once the gospel of Christ had been preached as Paul confirmed it was (Rom. 15:19; Col. 1:23; 1 Tim. 3:16; Heb. 4:2) then the “end” came (Matt. 24:14) and was carried out in the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70.

That was the end of the specific prophesy given to Daniel. Christ linked the prophesy of the destruction of the temple and of Jerusalem in Matt. chap. 24-25 to the tribulation which Daniel was told would happen (Dan. 12:1) after which many “that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake” (Dan. 12:2). This was the separation out of Hades which Christ set forth in Matt. 25 that happen at His return in judgment of Jerusalem. His second coming was felt and seen in the actions carried out against Jerusalem.

Daniel asked when would be the end of these wonders (Dan. 12:6) and Daniel was told by the angel standing on the waters (Christ),

…that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished. (Dan. 12:7, YLT)

Time, times, and a half, or 3-1/2 years. When was the power of the holy people of Daniel scattered? What was the power of Daniel’s people? It was the temple that ruled and governed their lives, and it was that temple that was destroyed in AD 70 which was the judgment and end of the desolations of Jerusalem which YHVH had determined.

Daniel’s confusion and astonishment caused him to ask again (Dan. 12:8) and was told that from the time the daily sacrifice was taken away would be 1,290 days (3-1/2 years). Is there a temple in Jerusalem today where a daily sacrifice is being offered on an altar? This daily sacrifice took place at an existing temple in Jerusalem before its destruction in AD 70. The “end of the days” of Dan. 12:13 is in the context of this entire prophesy of the end of the desolations of Jerusalem which began in Dan. 9:24 and cannot be extended beyond the destruction of that temple in Jerusalem in AD 70. The end of the days were the end of the 490 years, not the end of the entire physical cosmos.

The scriptures - both old and new testaments - define the “last days” as the time when the scepter would pass from the lawgiver (Judah) to Christ (Gen. 49:1,10), the time when Christ was made manifest on earth (1 Pet. 1:20), the time when Christ spoke to the people and was crucified (Heb. 1:1-3), the time when Peter repeated Joel’s prophesy for the pouring out of the Holy Spirit (Acts. 2:17). The scriptures never spoke of the last days of all time, nor of the last days of the new covenant, nor of the last days of God’s everlasting kingdom.

There are no “last days” of the everlasting gospel of Christ, else His sacrifice would be time limited. The confusion arises out of false teaching, and ignorance of God’s definitions from within the scriptures. The end of the days, the last days were the last days of the old Mosaic covenant and the ritual “fence” laws of the sacrificial temple in Jerusalem which became profane once Christ became the last blood sacrifice God would ever again accept for forgiveness of sins.

Since that temple was destroyed everyone who dies in the Lord are changed in the twinkling of an eye (1 Cor. 15:52) into our immortal body, and gathered into heaven where all the other saints in Christ are already enjoying eternal life. We are not waiting for one final judgment day. Christ is ruling from the right hand of the Father now, and has been ever since that temple was destroyed, and He is judging those who pass from this carnal world every single hour of every single day.

Please read:

  1. Testing The Spirits Part II: The End

  2. Testing The Spirits Part III: Daniel's Lot

  3. Hades Is No More

  4. Daniel and the End Times

Gina
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    This was a good answer, exceptional one even, if the "full preterist" view were to be taken seriously. I even, very recently, came to the conclusion that with respect to Dan, 12:1, 2, there had to have been some kind of Christ intervention (Michael being an indirect ref to the Christ), which in turn caused some, NOT all, of the memorial tombs to be opened, which does indeed speak to an "end of time" scenario, 1 Cor, 15:52 and 1 Thess, 4:16,17, but not THE end of times, IMO. Those vv. even speak to 70 AD. I question, however, your take as to the "70 Weeks" of Daniel ..tbc... – Olde English Jan 23 '24 at 20:46
  • .. not to mention your believe as to when Christ died. For the longest time, I was of the believe that the 70th week, was indeed separate from the 69th and even encompassed the 7 year period of 66-73 AD, until I wasn't. See my answer within the following:- https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/83490/how-can-we-know-when-jesus-became-messiah-the-prince-as-per-dan-925-was-it/84052#84052 Consequently, I am now in agreement with Messrs Young and Walker, who agree with me on Jesus' 33 AD death, and it being .. the central point in His (God's) eternal plan of redemption for all mankind. – Olde English Jan 23 '24 at 21:11
  • For my take, and indeed Biblehub's Benson's take on Dan,12:1,2, you can also see, or if inclined, check out the following link:-https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/86609/if-dan-121-3-truly-follows-on-in-close-proximity-to-the-death-of-antiochus-iv/86635#86635 – Olde English Jan 23 '24 at 21:16
  • There is good reason why the crucifixion was most probably 31 AD as Tiberius' rule over the province of Syria & Judea began 2 years b4 Augustus death in 14 AD as Augustus had appointed Tiberius co-regency due to Augustus illness. Luke would have counted from AD 12. So, count 15 yrs from Oct 12 AD to Oct 27 AD, then add 3.5 yrs for Jesus' ministry to Mar AD 31 for the crucifixion. Then 40 yrs to read the gospel thruout the lands to the fall of the temple is on an inclusive count AD 31 to AD 40 = 10 yrs, AD 41 - AD 50 = 20 yrs, etc. & I take the scriptures seriously. – Gina Jan 24 '24 at 04:56
  • Further, Benson as many other commentators has a built in bias in not understanding God's meaning of "the latter days" & incorrectly attributing it to an "end of the world" meaning for 1 final judgment day at the end of time. The Bible does not discuss the end of all time. – Gina Jan 24 '24 at 05:09
  • What you are really saying is that you take the "interpretation" of scriptures "responsibly", as I strive to do, but that doesn't mean to say that we can't be wrong. I've been wrong before. You, however, just can't be wrong. Well you are wrong on two counts here, in commenting, at least IMO, maybe even three, if I was to tackle you on Benson's so called "bias". It's pretty well established that Tiberius' rule is not counted from a so called co-regency of 2 years prior to Augustus' death. Also, Jesus didn't die on a Tuesday, in March of 31 AD, he categorically died on a Friday and in 33 AD. – Olde English Jan 24 '24 at 06:01
  • The focus of the prophesies of both Dan 9 -12 and Matt 24-25 was the desolation of JERUSALEM! Context matters. I did not say that Jesus died on a Tuesday. I do not interpret; I connect the scriptures which define God's meaning as only God interprets His word (Dan. 2: 28). The "latter days" were the days in which the Messiah would appear during the 4th beast kingdom (the Roman empire). And co-regency was known & accepted. See: http://www.biblefragrances.com/studies/tiberius.html – Gina Jan 24 '24 at 06:34
  • We are being asked to go to chat, but with you, I feel and indeed know from past experience, that that would just go nowhere. I know you did not say that Jesus died on a Tuesday, but by you promoting Mar of 31 AD, the relevant passover would have to have started on the evening of Tuesday, March 27. Until the next time, which will not be in the next 30 mins. – Olde English Jan 24 '24 at 06:58