1

Hebrews Ch.11:39

And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, obtained not the promise

What is this promise Paul is speaking of?

RHPclass79
  • 994
  • 1
  • 2
  • 20
  • I fixed your formatting. To set off a quotation, highlight it and hit the quotation marks icon at the top of the editing box. – Dan Fefferman Dec 02 '23 at 03:19
  • @ Dan Fefferman. The question I asked was not addressed in your answer. The people in the " role of faith " never received the promise and were "not" made perfect. Was it your intent to modify ( whatever that entails). – RHPclass79 Dec 04 '23 at 16:46
  • Not sure what you are objecting to. The verse that you cited and the following question speak only of the promise that was not received. I explained what that was. 12:22-23 explains how the promise would be fulfilled: " you have approached Mount Zion and the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, and countless angels in festal gathering, 23 and the assembly of the firstborn enrolled in heaven." – Dan Fefferman Dec 05 '23 at 02:34
  • 1
    Or did I somehow change the substance of your question when I fixed the formatting? – Dan Fefferman Dec 05 '23 at 02:42
  • @ Dan Fefferman. Paul or the writer of Hebrews was emphasizing that as important as Abraham-------David were, they did not receive the promise. Therefore the recipients of the book of Hebrews could receive something new and different. Something that would complete or make them perfect. What do you think that was by scripture? Thanks in advance. – RHPclass79 Dec 05 '23 at 03:13
  • https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/52622/what-is-the-meaning-of-hebrews-1139-40 – Michael16 Dec 05 '23 at 11:15
  • @ Michael 16. This has turned out to be a question of questions, if you consider the provoking of much thought a great question. If you consider great confusion a good thing, then this has been a terrible question and no one has answered it "perfectly" according to the use of the word " perfect" as used many times in the book of Hebrews. We have made a large step in the right direction though. The NIV rendering seems to be at odds with the KJV. I use the KJV and see the being made "perfect" as something contemporary with the time of the book of Hebrews and who it was written to. – RHPclass79 Dec 05 '23 at 16:00
  • @Michael16. Continuing from above----- It was only after careful review of the previous post you referenced that I noticed the reason for all the confusion. KJV uses the words "they without us" in verse 40. This leads one to believe that those mentioned as without could NOT receive (according to verse 39) what those referred to as "us" in verse 40. Now back to your question of my question: no one has answer it yet. My question is simply what is the "promise" of verse 39 first off and then if allowed how did it make one perfect? According to KJV rendering. – RHPclass79 Dec 05 '23 at 16:24
  • see other questions on the same verse; always search well for existing questions before posting a new one. https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/search?q=Hebrews+11%3A39+made+perfect – Michael16 Dec 05 '23 at 16:35

2 Answers2

1

This is explained earlier in the chapter. They sought the promise of a spiritual homeland (meaning what most people call heaven).

All these died in faith. They did not receive what had been promised but saw it and greeted it from afar and acknowledged themselves to be strangers and aliens on earth, 14 for those who speak thus show that they are seeking a homeland... 16 They desire a better homeland, a heavenly one. Therefore, God is not ashamed to be called their God, for he has prepared a city for them.

By the way, the proposition that Paul was the author of Hebrews is traditional but the Bible does not claim this; and most modern translations no longer include Paul in the title. See this question for more information.

Dan Fefferman
  • 15,919
  • 2
  • 12
  • 62
  • I figured that would be questioned. Sentence structure in most of the context of the book definitely looks dissimilar to Paul's other epistles, but the ending and use of the word beseech seems other wise. Perhaps a topic for another day. If someone wants to edit that to the author of Hebrews I would not object. – RHPclass79 Dec 02 '23 at 04:03
  • Excellent answer - you took the words out of my mouth! +1. – Dottard Dec 02 '23 at 07:21
  • This question has NOT been answered "perfectly". Come on people you can do better than this! – RHPclass79 Dec 03 '23 at 12:26
0

The obvious answer to this question would be:

Galatians 3:22

But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

Assuming no argument with this at all, can we look further to another verse:

Acts 1:4

... that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which saith he, you have heard of me.

So you see we have two plausible answers backed up by scripture. In keeping with the many uses of the word "perfect" used by the author of Hebrews ( which means made complete ) one can now assume this answer is not an either-or question, but the more "perfect" answer would be, all of the above! Meaning the work of both Jesus and the Holy Spirit is the promise.

agarza
  • 4,297
  • 6
  • 15
  • 32
RHPclass79
  • 994
  • 1
  • 2
  • 20