23 But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ. 24 Then comes the end, when he delivers the kingdom to God the Father after destroying every rule and every authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For “God has put all things in subjection under his feet.” But when it says, “all things are put in subjection,” it is plain that he is excepted who put all things in subjection under him. 28 When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all.
-1 Corinthians 15:23-28
In English, the straightforward implication of this verse is that Jesus's reign is coming to an end where the authority he previously was granted is handed over to God. Just doesn't seem right that the Messiah having been promised an everlasting kingdom (2 Sam 7:12-14) would at some point not rule the kingdom promised.
Luke 1:30-33 (ESV)
And the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God. And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus. He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. And the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of his kingdom there will be no end."
How is "until" meant to communicate in the context of this passage? How does it work if we otherwise understand Jesus's rule to persist even after he delivers the kingdom to God?